San K said:
per actual results/QM
50 pairs (will) will give the same results at both the polarizers at (-30, 30) or (0,60) etc
87 pairs (will) give the same results (at both the polarizers) at (-15, 0) or (15, 0) or (45, 30) etc
100 pairs (will) give the same results (at both the polarizers) at (0, 0) or (30, 30) or (40, 40) etc
by same results we mean = either both (of the entangled photons) pass through or both don't pass through
Most of this is wrong, so let me tell you what is correct:
If the polarizers are 0 degrees apart 100 pairs will give the same result.
If the polarizers are 30 degrees apart, 75 pairs will give the same result.
If the polarizers are 45 degrees apart, 50 pairs will give the same result.
If the polarizers are 60 degrees apart, 25 pairs will give the same result.
If the polarizers are 90 degrees apart, 0 pairs will give the same result.
In general, if the polarizers are an angle θ apart, the number of pairs that give the same result is 100cos
2(θ) and the number of pairs that give different results is 100sin
2(θ).
per Bell's reasoning/deduction of LHV hypothesis
the numbers should/would be
33.333
66.666
100
I don't know what you're saying here, but what Bell's (and Herbert's) reasoning shows is that local hidden variable theories, assuming they agree with all 100 pairs giving the same result when the polarizers are 0 degrees apart, MUST have the following property: the number of pairs that give opposite results when the polarizers are an angle 2θ apart is less than or equal to twice the number of pairs that give opposite results when the polarizers are an angle θ apart. In particular, the number of pairs that give opposite results when the polarizers are 60 degrees apart must be less than or equal to twice the number of pairs that give opposite results when the polarizers are 30 degrees apart, a result which you can see from my numbers flatly contradicts quantum mechanics. That's because quantum mechanics says 25 pairs give opposite results at 30 degrees, so a local hidden variables theorist would conclude, via Bell's reasoning, that at most 50 pairs give opposite results at 60 degrees. But QM says 75 pairs give opposite results at 60 degrees.
can you rewrite the above logic in terms of "probability of the instruction to be same"?
I could, but the resulting inequality would be more confusing. But let me spell out the logic of the existing inequality.
If x=y and y=z, then x=z, agreed? Thus if x≠z, then either x≠y or y≠z, agreed? (What we really mean is x≠y or y≠z or both, but in mathematics it's customary to use the word "or" to mean "A or B or both.) But by the laws of probability, the probability that x≠y or y≠z is less than or equal to the probability that x≠y plus the probability that y≠z. Thus the probability that x≠z is less than or equal to the probability that x≠y plus the probability that y≠z. Does that make sense to you? In our case, x is "the instruction at -30", y is "the instruction at 0", and z is "the instruction at 30".