- #1
rede96
- 663
- 16
I'd like to start off by saying I'm just a 52 yo interested layman with no back ground in physics so apologize up front for my ignorance!
I understand the basic principle behind Bell's Inequality and how it disproves that when measuring the different spin states of a particle, the particle can't have predetermined properties of spin such as 'spin up' and 'spin left' for example.
But to be honest I never really understood why this ruled out some form of hidden variables that although didn't lead to combinations of spin states being predetermined, it could for example allow for entangled particles to be correlated when measured at the same angle while being random at other angles.
With that in mind I thought it is possible to break bell’s inequality using a classical example if one or more of the variables are random when measured, such as being time or position dependent.
For example, I could ask a group of people three yes/no questions. (a) Were you born in the northern hemisphere? (b) do you like cheese? and (c) are you in America now?
I ask questions (a) and (c) and then at some point later I ask questions (b) and (c). While answer (a) would never change, question (c) may depending on where they were when I asked. So in that way a person could answer yes the first time and no the second, therefore breaking Bell’s inequality.
And although question (c) would appear random, if I knew enough about the person I could maybe predict where they might be and hence predict their answer.
So my question: Is there any reason why this can’t this be applied on a quantum level? Is there any reason why we can’t assume that maybe there are some hidden variables that can cause an entangled pair of particles to be correlated when measured at the same angle but random when measured at a different one?
Sorry if the answer is obvious but I've not been able to think of it.
I understand the basic principle behind Bell's Inequality and how it disproves that when measuring the different spin states of a particle, the particle can't have predetermined properties of spin such as 'spin up' and 'spin left' for example.
But to be honest I never really understood why this ruled out some form of hidden variables that although didn't lead to combinations of spin states being predetermined, it could for example allow for entangled particles to be correlated when measured at the same angle while being random at other angles.
With that in mind I thought it is possible to break bell’s inequality using a classical example if one or more of the variables are random when measured, such as being time or position dependent.
For example, I could ask a group of people three yes/no questions. (a) Were you born in the northern hemisphere? (b) do you like cheese? and (c) are you in America now?
I ask questions (a) and (c) and then at some point later I ask questions (b) and (c). While answer (a) would never change, question (c) may depending on where they were when I asked. So in that way a person could answer yes the first time and no the second, therefore breaking Bell’s inequality.
And although question (c) would appear random, if I knew enough about the person I could maybe predict where they might be and hence predict their answer.
So my question: Is there any reason why this can’t this be applied on a quantum level? Is there any reason why we can’t assume that maybe there are some hidden variables that can cause an entangled pair of particles to be correlated when measured at the same angle but random when measured at a different one?
Sorry if the answer is obvious but I've not been able to think of it.