Understanding Edexcel GCE January 2010 Mechanics M2 QP: Question 8C Explanation

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In the discussion about Question 8C from the Edexcel GCE January 2010 Mechanics M2 exam, participants clarify the reasoning behind setting x = 0 during differentiation. It is explained that this does not involve differentiating but rather indicates that at the initial moment of launch, the x-component of the position is zero. The y-component of velocity is described as being c times greater than the x-component, reflecting the initial velocity given in the problem. The slope of the trajectory at this point is thus c, derived from the initial conditions of the problem. This understanding is crucial for interpreting the mechanics of the particle's motion accurately.
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Generally, the derivative of a function is zero at a point where the function has a minimum.
[Edit:Sorry, please ignore my comment. I was looking at the first problem.]
 
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phospho said:
http://www.scribd.com/doc/26846418/Edexcel-GCE-January-2010-Mechanics-M2-QP

http://www.edexcel.com/migrationdoc...CE January 2010 - MS/6678_01_msc_20100219.pdf

Question 8C:

The second link is the answers - I don't understand why they set x = 0 when they differentiated, could anyone explain please?
The solution is not differentiating nor "sets" x = 0 at that part of the solution.

What the solution is trying to say is:

"At whatever time it is when x happens to be zero, the y-component of velocity is c times greater than the x-component of velocity."

Recall that in the original problem statement, the initial velocity was given to you as u(i + cj). So the slope ("rise over run", also called dy/dx) is c/1 = c.

So at the very beginning, when the particle is launched, x = 0. (This is implied by the problem statement saying, "Relative to O, the position vector of a point on the path of P is (xi + yj) m.)

So still in other words, the statement is saying, "At the time the particle was launched (i.e. x = 0), the velocity slope (dy/dt over dx/dt) is c."
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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