oswald2323
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Reading parts of the Monte Carlo methods book by G. Fishman I stumbled into this:
it says that whenever [tex]\zeta(R) = \int_R \varphi\ dx[/tex] exists, its value is the same as the Lebesgue-Stieltjes integral [tex]\zeta = \int_Z \kappa(z)dF(z)[/tex].
I am confused as to what this means, especially the "dF(z)" part.
Thanks in advance.
it says that whenever [tex]\zeta(R) = \int_R \varphi\ dx[/tex] exists, its value is the same as the Lebesgue-Stieltjes integral [tex]\zeta = \int_Z \kappa(z)dF(z)[/tex].
I am confused as to what this means, especially the "dF(z)" part.
Thanks in advance.