- #1
mathlove1
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Hi--
I am trying to work through Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds over the holidays, and I am a little stuck on his proof of the unique derivative (on p. 16 as well as below).
Specifically,
(i) Why does the ≤ inequality hold, and
(ii) Why does the last equality of the second-to-last-line hold?
I would very much appreciate any help!
I am trying to work through Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds over the holidays, and I am a little stuck on his proof of the unique derivative (on p. 16 as well as below).
Specifically,
(i) Why does the ≤ inequality hold, and
(ii) Why does the last equality of the second-to-last-line hold?
I would very much appreciate any help!