Understanding the concept of Probability distribution

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The discussion centers on deriving the cumulative distribution function F_X(u) from a given probability density function f_x(u) = (b-a)^{-1}. A proposed correction to the inequality suggests using a ≤ u < b, leading to the expression F_X(u) = (u-a)/(b-a). The participants explore the implications of including the endpoint b, noting that F(b) would equal 1, which raises concerns about the function's definition. The conversation also touches on the calculation of expected value E(x) and variance Var(x), with participants seeking clarity on their approaches and potential errors. The aim is to ensure accurate derivation and understanding of probability distributions.
chwala
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Homework Statement
see attached
Relevant Equations
statistics
Consider the attachment below;

1667555414361.png


How did they arrive at

##F_X (u) = \dfrac{u-a}{b-a}## ?

I think there is a mistake on the inequality, probably its supposed to be ##a≤u<b## and that will mean;

$$F_X (u) =\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^u du= \dfrac{1}{b-a} ⋅(u-a)$$ as required. Your thoughts...then i have the second part of the question that i will post here after the analysis.
 
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What do you think goes wrong if you include b? What is ##F(b)## supposed to be, and what does it become?
 
Office_Shredder said:
What do you think goes wrong if you include b?
It will be equal to ##1##.
 
chwala said:
It will be equal to ##1##.
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
 
Orodruin said:
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
Ok, i hear you...then are my steps in post ##1## correct with the given limits? if not then how did they arrive at the solution.
 
Orodruin said:
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
My intention is to get the shown ##F_X(u)## from the given probability density function ##f_x(u)=(b-a)^{-1}##. This is where my problem is.
 
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This is the continuation of the same problem...clearly textbook mistake on ##E(x)## value i.e the highlighted in red...Anyway, my approach on this problem;

$$E(x)=\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^b u du= \left[\dfrac{b^2-a^2}{2} ⋅\dfrac{1}{b-a}\right]=\left[\dfrac{(b+a)(b-a)}{2(b-a)}\right]=\dfrac{b+a}{2}$$$$Var(x)=\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^b u^2 du=\left[\dfrac{b^3-a^3}{3} ⋅\dfrac{1}{b-a}\right]=\left[\dfrac{b^2+a^2+ab}{3}-\dfrac{(b+a)^2}{4}\right]$$

$$=\left[\dfrac{(4b^2+4a^2+4ab)-(3b^2+6ab+3a^2)}{12}\right]$$

$$=\left[\dfrac{b^2+a^2-2ab}{12}\right]= \dfrac{(b-a)^2}{12}$$

if there is a better approach will appreciate. Cheers guys!
 
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