Understanding the concept of Probability distribution

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of the cumulative distribution function (CDF) \( F_X(u) = \frac{u-a}{b-a} \) for a uniform probability distribution defined on the interval \([a, b)\). Participants address potential mistakes in the inequality notation and the implications of including the endpoint \( b \) in the interval. The consensus is that including \( b \) results in \( F(b) = 1 \), which can lead to misinterpretations in probability calculations. The discussion also covers the expected value \( E(x) \) and variance \( Var(x) \) calculations for the uniform distribution, confirming the correctness of the derived formulas.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of cumulative distribution functions (CDFs)
  • Familiarity with probability density functions (PDFs)
  • Knowledge of integration techniques in calculus
  • Basic concepts of expected value and variance in statistics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of uniform distributions in probability theory
  • Learn about the implications of defining intervals in probability distributions
  • Explore advanced integration techniques for calculating expected values and variances
  • Investigate common mistakes in probability calculations and how to avoid them
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Students and professionals in statistics, data science, and mathematics who are looking to deepen their understanding of probability distributions, particularly uniform distributions, and their applications in statistical analysis.

chwala
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Homework Statement
see attached
Relevant Equations
statistics
Consider the attachment below;

1667555414361.png


How did they arrive at

##F_X (u) = \dfrac{u-a}{b-a}## ?

I think there is a mistake on the inequality, probably its supposed to be ##a≤u<b## and that will mean;

$$F_X (u) =\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^u du= \dfrac{1}{b-a} ⋅(u-a)$$ as required. Your thoughts...then i have the second part of the question that i will post here after the analysis.
 
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What do you think goes wrong if you include b? What is ##F(b)## supposed to be, and what does it become?
 
Office_Shredder said:
What do you think goes wrong if you include b?
It will be equal to ##1##.
 
chwala said:
It will be equal to ##1##.
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
 
Orodruin said:
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
Ok, i hear you...then are my steps in post ##1## correct with the given limits? if not then how did they arrive at the solution.
 
Orodruin said:
And why would that be a problem?

Do note that the definition of ##F_X## would result in exactly the same function if you instead defined the middle case on the interval ##[a,b)## and the third on ##[b, \infty)## because both expressions are equal to one at ##u = b##.
My intention is to get the shown ##F_X(u)## from the given probability density function ##f_x(u)=(b-a)^{-1}##. This is where my problem is.
 
1667568416160.png
This is the continuation of the same problem...clearly textbook mistake on ##E(x)## value i.e the highlighted in red...Anyway, my approach on this problem;

$$E(x)=\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^b u du= \left[\dfrac{b^2-a^2}{2} ⋅\dfrac{1}{b-a}\right]=\left[\dfrac{(b+a)(b-a)}{2(b-a)}\right]=\dfrac{b+a}{2}$$$$Var(x)=\dfrac{1}{b-a} \int_a^b u^2 du=\left[\dfrac{b^3-a^3}{3} ⋅\dfrac{1}{b-a}\right]=\left[\dfrac{b^2+a^2+ab}{3}-\dfrac{(b+a)^2}{4}\right]$$

$$=\left[\dfrac{(4b^2+4a^2+4ab)-(3b^2+6ab+3a^2)}{12}\right]$$

$$=\left[\dfrac{b^2+a^2-2ab}{12}\right]= \dfrac{(b-a)^2}{12}$$

if there is a better approach will appreciate. Cheers guys!
 
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