brotherbobby
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- TL;DR
- I like to understand how the Coriolis acceleration (##-2\vec\Omega\times\vec v_{rot}##)arises, as explained in Kleppner and Kolenkkow's book An Introduction to Mechanics (2014, 2E). It is evident that there are two terms behind the acceleration; a radial and a tangential component. Only, I am not able to understand either of them.
I copy and paste the relavant paragraphs and images from the text. I might have to do it several times, each time underlining in red what I failed to follow. Here's the first.
Statement : "Here the acceleration is in a plane perpendicular to ##\mathbf\Omega##".
Sure, the acceleration itself is perpendicular to ##\vec\Omega##. But plane?
The Coriolis acceleration is given by ##-2\vec\Omega\times\vec v_{rot}##. The author(s) are trying to see it from an inertial frame in which the body has both a rotation and a velocity. In the rotating frame, the body only has a velocity ##\vec v_{rot}##. Fair enough. So we have to understand how does the acceleration ##+2\vec\Omega\times\vec v_{rot}## come about. For simplicity, let's assume that the body is moving uniformly in the rotating frame along the ##x## axis, meaning ##\vec v_{rot} = v_0 \hat i##. Also, let's assume that the rotating frame is rotating uniformly about the ##z## axis : ##\vec \Omega= \Omega_0 \hat k##. In that case, the coriolis acceleration would be ##= 2\Omega_0 v_0\hat j##.
The acceleration is in the ##y-z## plane, along the ##y## axis. So is the angular velocity vector ##\vec\Omega##, but along the ##z## axis. How is the acceleration in a plane perpendicular to the rotation velocity?