I Understanding the Irreducible Solution in Classical Harmonic Oscillators

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The discussion focuses on the concept of the irreducible solution in classical harmonic oscillators, particularly in relation to quantum mechanics. The irreducible solution is described as a linear combination of the eigenbasis of the system. There is some confusion regarding the terminology, especially the distinction between classical and quantum harmonic oscillators. The original poster seeks clarification on whether the irreducible solution can be represented as ie^(-iwt) for a simple harmonic oscillator solution like sin(wt). Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the connection between classical and quantum oscillators while addressing terminology concerns.
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Harmonic Oscillator
Hellow. I am doing an introductory to Quantum Mechanics course, and the irreducible solution appeared in the harmonic oscillator. When we talk about the irreducible solution, this is the solution as a linear combination of the eigenbasis of the system. This is understandable, however, if I have a simple case of a harmonic oscillator, with solution sin(wt) then the irreducible solution would be ie^(-iwt)? Thank you in advance
 
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I'm a little confused by the terminology you use, particularly irreducible solution. But I read your post as defining the irreducible solution as the solution written as the sum of eigenvectors. Also, are you referring to the quantum harmonic oscillator or the classical harmonic oscillator in the last half of your post?
 
Haborix said:
I'm a little confused by the terminology you use, particularly irreducible solution. But I read your post as defining the irreducible solution as the solution written as the sum of eigenvectors. Also, are you referring to the quantum harmonic oscillator or the classical harmonic oscillator in the last half of your post?
It is the classic oscillator. But nonetheless, it can be derived from the quantum oscillator.
 
We often see discussions about what QM and QFT mean, but hardly anything on just how fundamental they are to much of physics. To rectify that, see the following; https://www.cambridge.org/engage/api-gateway/coe/assets/orp/resource/item/66a6a6005101a2ffa86cdd48/original/a-derivation-of-maxwell-s-equations-from-first-principles.pdf 'Somewhat magically, if one then applies local gauge invariance to the Dirac Lagrangian, a field appears, and from this field it is possible to derive Maxwell’s...