Understanding the Relationship Between Force, Acceleration, and Momentum

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between force, acceleration, and momentum, specifically addressing the equations F=ma and p=mv. Participants confirm that a net force acting on an object changes its momentum, with the correct expression being FΔt = Δp, which distinguishes between momentum (p) and change in momentum (Δp). The conversation also touches on the clarity of these concepts and the confusion surrounding the use of Ft = p.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding Newton's Second Law (F=ma)
  • Familiarity with the concept of momentum (p=mv)
  • Knowledge of impulse and its relation to momentum (FΔt = Δp)
  • Basic grasp of kinematics and dynamics in physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and implications of Newton's Second Law
  • Explore the concept of impulse and its applications in physics
  • Learn about the conservation of momentum in closed systems
  • Investigate real-world examples of force and momentum interactions
USEFUL FOR

Students of physics, educators teaching mechanics, and anyone interested in the fundamental principles of motion and forces.

-Physician
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We know that
##F=ma## or ##F=ma=m \frac{v}{t}##, so the acceleration is rate of slowing or speeding velocity, then does force changes the momentum ##p=mv## or ##p=Ft##.

I'm waiting an answer, thanks!:)
 
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-Physician said:
We know that
##F=ma## or ##F=ma=m \frac{v}{t}##, so the acceleration is rate of slowing or speeding velocity, then does force changes the momentum ##p=mv## or ##p=Ft##.

I'm waiting an answer, thanks!:)
What exactly is your question? Yes, a net force on a body does change its momentum.
 
Uhm, the answer was the answer that i requested, thanks!
 
Doc Al said:
Yes, a net force on a body does change its momentum.
Doc Al, the correct expression of this would be FΔt = Δp, no? Ft = p strikes me as imprecise, confusing Δp with p, which is mv. In other words, we use FT or FΔt to find change in momentum, and mv to find momentum. Correct?
 
i have another question , why we couldn't gather first law from second law ? and does 2nd law have any prove ?
 
zoobyshoe said:
Doc Al, the correct expression of this would be FΔt = Δp, no? Ft = p strikes me as imprecise, confusing Δp with p, which is mv. In other words, we use FT or FΔt to find change in momentum, and mv to find momentum. Correct?
Yes, I already pointed that out yesterday:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=576484
 
zoobyshoe said:
Doc Al, the correct expression of this would be FΔt = Δp, no? Ft = p strikes me as imprecise, confusing Δp with p, which is mv. In other words, we use FT or FΔt to find change in momentum, and mv to find momentum. Correct?
Right. Sure, his statements were inaccurate. But first I wanted to find out what his question was, as it wasn't clear to me just what he was trying to do.
 
Doc Al said:
Right. Sure, his statements were inaccurate. But first I wanted to find out what his question was, as it wasn't clear to me just what he was trying to do.
Me either. I just wanted to clarify because I'm talking to another guy in another thread who seemed to think Ft = p, as opposed to Δp. Seeing it twice made me wonder if it was somehow acceptable in some way shape or form I wasn't aware of. Thanks.
 

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