Understanding Urysohn's Lemma: Explaining the "If" Part

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SUMMARY

Urysohn's lemma applies specifically to normal topological spaces, which are defined by the ability to separate closed sets with disjoint open sets. The discussion clarifies that the "if" part of Urysohn's lemma is evident to some, particularly regarding the openness of sets like [0,1/2) and (1/2,1]. The confusion arises from the misconception that open sets must be open intervals in the real numbers, while they can also be open in a subspace topology. The Wikipedia link provided serves as a reliable reference for the lemma's formal statement.

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  • Understanding of normal topological spaces
  • Familiarity with the concept of open and closed sets in topology
  • Knowledge of subspace topology
  • Basic understanding of Urysohn's lemma
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  • Learn about open and closed sets in the context of topology
  • Explore the concept of subspace topology in detail
  • Read the formal statement and proof of Urysohn's lemma on Wikipedia
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Homework Statement


Urysohn's lemma

My book says that the "if" part of Urysohn's lemma is obvious with no explanation. Can someone explain why?

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution

 
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It would have been a good idea to actually state Urysohn's lemma as it is given in your book. Sometimes statements vary from one book to another. In particular you should note that Urysohn's lemma only applies in NORMAL spaces. What is the definition of a "Normal" topological space?
 
HallsofIvy said:
It would have been a good idea to actually state Urysohn's lemma as it is given in your book. Sometimes statements vary from one book to another. In particular you should note that Urysohn's lemma only applies in NORMAL spaces. What is the definition of a "Normal" topological space?

Sorry. I meant to put a link to Wikipedia, which has the same statement of Urysohn's Lemma as that in my book.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Urysohns_lemma

It comes down to whether the sets [0,1/2) and (1/2,1] are open. Apparently this is obvious to other people, but it seems counterintuitive to me because I thought open sets were open intervals.
 
ehrenfest said:
Sorry. I meant to put a link to Wikipedia, which has the same statement of Urysohn's Lemma as that in my book.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Urysohns_lemma

It comes down to whether the sets [0,1/2) and (1/2,1] are open. Apparently this is obvious to other people, but it seems counterintuitive to me because I thought open sets were open intervals.
[0, 1/2) is not an open subset of R
[0, 1/2) is an open subset of [0, 1].
 
I guess that makes sense, since balls around around 0 can have no negative numbers in them, so they are really just half-balls.
 

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