Analysis question -- Aren't all prime numbers not a product of primes?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a lemma related to prime numbers and their representation as products of primes. Participants are exploring the implications of the lemma, particularly questioning the assertion that all integers can be expressed as products of primes, while also addressing the nature of prime numbers themselves.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants express confusion regarding the lemma and its implications for prime numbers, particularly questioning how prime numbers can be considered products of primes. There is a discussion about the treatment of units and the conditions under which the lemma holds.

Discussion Status

There are multiple interpretations being explored regarding the lemma and its application to prime numbers. Some participants are attempting to clarify the definitions and conditions of the lemma, while others are questioning the foundational assumptions behind it.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of ruling out units like ±1 in the context of the lemma. There is also mention of the conditions that restrict the integers being considered, specifically focusing on integers greater than or equal to 2.

Clara Chung
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Homework Statement


Screenshot_20171005-233019.png


I don't understand the lemma.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Isn't all prime number not a product of primes? The lemma doesn't make sense to me... Moreover, if m=2, m-1 is smaller than 2, the inequality also doesn't make sense. Please help me
 
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Clara Chung said:

Homework Statement


View attachment 212381

I don't understand the lemma.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Isn't all prime number not a product of primes? The lemma doesn't make sense to me... Moreover, if m=2, m-1 is smaller than 2, the inequality also doesn't make sense. Please help me
The Lemma states that all integers are a product of primes. Of course you have to rule out the units ##\pm 1## as one can always add arbitrary many of them. This would make no sense. Similar it isn't important to treat positive and negative numbers separately, so the condition ##\ge 2## makes sense. I do not understand what you mean by "all prime number a product of primes". It is, if you consider ##p=p## as a product, but here proper products without units are meant.
 
fresh_42 said:
The Lemma states that all integers are a product of primes. Of course you have to rule out the units ##\pm 1## as one can always add arbitrary many of them. This would make no sense. Similar it isn't important to treat positive and negative numbers separately, so the condition ##\ge 2## makes sense. I do not understand what you mean by "all prime number a product of primes". It is, if you consider ##p=p## as a product, but here proper products without units are meant.
If prime number is not products of primes, how come the lemma is correct?...
 
Yes, ##n=1\cdot p## or ##n=p## count as product in its rigor meaning.

Formally it says that every integer ##n\geq 2## can be written as ##n=\prod {p_i}^{m_i}## with primes ##p_i\; , \;m_i \in \mathbb{N}_0 ## and ## \sum m_i > 0##. This includes ##n=p##, excludes ##1## and doesn't bother about any additional unnecessary factors ##1##. The formulation in words is just this: saying in words what I wrote with symbols. Try to find another wording if you like. It will probably be longer. I would rather bother about the term Lemma because it's usual name is fundamental theorem of arithmetic - at least the existence part of it. (The uniqueness part is missing, and this requires to get rid of all eventual ##1##'s.)
 
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