Uniform Continuity of 1/x^2 on various sets

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SUMMARY

The function f(x) = 1/x² is uniformly continuous on the interval [1, ∞) but not on the interval (0, 1]. This conclusion is drawn from the definition of uniform continuity, which states that for a function to be uniformly continuous, for every ε > 0, there must exist a δ > 0 such that for all x₁, x₂ in the domain, if |x₁ - x₂| < δ, then |f(x₁) - f(x₂)| < ε. The steepness of the graph of f(x) near zero demonstrates that small changes in x can lead to large changes in f(x), violating uniform continuity on (0, 1].

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of uniform continuity and its mathematical definition.
  • Familiarity with the function f(x) = 1/x² and its properties.
  • Basic knowledge of limits and sequences in real analysis.
  • Graphical interpretation of functions and their behavior over specified intervals.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the definition of uniform continuity in detail.
  • Explore examples of functions that are uniformly continuous and those that are not.
  • Learn about the implications of continuity on different intervals and their effects on function behavior.
  • Investigate the concept of limits and how they relate to continuity in real analysis.
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Students of real analysis, mathematics educators, and anyone interested in understanding the properties of continuous functions and their behavior over different intervals.

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Homework Statement



Show that f(x)=\frac{1}{x^{2}} is uniformly continuous on the set [1,\infty) but not on the set (0,1].

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I've been working at this for at least 2 hours now, possibly 3, and I can't say I really have much of any idea about it. I've primarily been looking at the fact that a function f: A\rightarrow \Re is not uniformly continuous iff \exists some \epsilon_{0} > 0 and sequences xn and yn where |xn-yn| \rightarrow 0 but |f(xn)-f(yn)|\geq \epsilon0.

My thought was to somehow say that, for part one, because all sequences must be \geq 1, they must converge to the same thing and therefore |f(xn)-f(yn)|= 0 for some n, but I'm not sure if I can for various reasons. In fact, I can't even really come up with any sequences in (0,1] to show that the function is not uniformly continuous on that set. I can think of another way to do that one, but I really want to see some sequences to do it to prove that it works in that case.

Any help is greatly appreciated.
 
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Look at the graph of f(x) = 1/x^2. For the interval x >= 1, the graph is fairly level, so if |x1 - x2| is small, |f(x1) = f(x2)| is small as well. OTOH, the graph is very steep for x close to zero, so |x1 - x2| being small doesn't guarantee that |f(x1) - f(x2)| will also be small.
 

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