Unique Property of Convergent Series?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the property of a specific convergent series, particularly the equality of the sums of the series formed by the terms sin(k)/k and (sin(k)/k)^2. Participants explore whether this property is unique to these series or if other convergent series might share it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant claims that the sums of the series Sum_(k>=1)(sin(k)/k) and Sum_(k>=1)(sin(k)/k)^2 are equal, expressing surprise at this finding.
  • Another participant questions the equality of the two sums and suggests that it is possible to construct other series with similar properties, specifically mentioning a condition where partial sums are equal every two steps.
  • A later reply confirms the equality of the sums and provides a technical explanation involving Fourier transforms and the Poisson summation formula to support this claim.
  • This technical explanation includes details about the rectangle and triangle functions related to the Fourier transforms, leading to the conclusion that both sums equal π, and subsequently, the sums from k=1 to infinity equal (π - 1)/2.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants exhibit disagreement regarding the uniqueness of the property. While one participant asserts the equality of the sums, another suggests that there are potentially many series that could exhibit similar properties, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved on the uniqueness aspect.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves complex mathematical concepts such as Fourier transforms and the Poisson summation formula, which may require further justification or assumptions that are not fully explored in the posts.

dimitri151
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I was goofing around with Mathematica and found that Sum_(k>=1)(sin(k)/k)=Sum_(k>=1)(sin(k)/k)^2. In other words a convergent series such that if you square each of its terms the sum is the same. Question is: is this a unique property or are there other convergent series with the property? Cheers.
 
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Are you sure they are exactly the same?

It is easy to construct series with this property, if you ask for the partial sum to be the same every two steps for example. This boils down to solutions for a^2+b^2 = a+b with the additional constraint that the sequence made out of those pairs should converge to zero. On this circle, your (a,b) points have to converge to (0,0).
That is just a very small subset of all series with this property.
 
Yes thank you that is so. And as for those sums, yes, they are equal. I'm sort of amazed at it, but wondering if I should be.
 
mfb said:
Are you sure they are exactly the same?
They are exactly the same. One way to see this is to observe that ##\sin(x)/x## is the Fourier transform of a rectangle function with height equal to ##\pi## and support equal to ##[-1/(2\pi),1/(2\pi)]##, and ##\sin^2(x)/x^2## is the Fourier transform of a triangle function (the convolution of the above rectangle with itself). The Poisson summation formula, assuming we can justify its application, gives us
$$\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(k)}{k} = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}r(k)$$
and
$$\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2(k)}{k^2} = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}t(k)$$
where ##r## and ##t## are the rectangle and triangle functions described above. The right hand side in both cases is equal to ##\pi##, so
$$\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(k)}{k} = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2(k)}{k^2} = \pi$$
Then, since both summands are symmetric around ##k=0## and both are equal to ##1## at ##k=0##, we conclude that
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(k)}{k} = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2(k)}{k^2} = \frac{\pi - 1}{2}$$
 
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