Unravelling the Mystery of Cn: How to Find Convergent Sequences

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the sequence Cn = [(-1)^n * 1/n!]. Participants are exploring related convergent sequences and the application of the squeeze theorem in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand how to identify two convergent sequences related to Cn. Questions arise regarding the selection of the sequences An = -1/2^n and Bn = 1/2^n, as well as the reasoning behind their convergence.

Discussion Status

Some participants have suggested that Cn oscillates between positive and negative values and does not converge to a single value. Others have introduced the squeeze theorem as a method to demonstrate convergence, while expressing uncertainty about the use of this theorem and the reasoning behind the choice of bounding sequences.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of discomfort with the squeeze theorem and a reference to the Absolute Value Theorem as an alternative approach to understanding the convergence of oscillating sequences. The discussion reflects a need for clarity on the underlying principles of convergence and theorems applicable to sequences.

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Sequences HELP!

Homework Statement



Show that the sequence Cn = [(-1)^n * 1/n!]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



This is an example in my book but I am not understanding it...

It says to find 2 convergent sequences that can be related to the given sequence. 2 possibilities are An = -1/2^n and Bn = 1/2^n
.....
where are they getting this from??
 
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When trying to determine if a sequence converges it needs to approach a certain number. By pluging in numbers for the value of n you'll notice that

Cn = [(-1)^n * 1/n!]

will jump back and fourth between positive and negative values, and therefore isn't approaching a single value. You then need to find a graph both above and below that sequence that converge, you do this by the squeeze theorem.

If you graph all three of those sequences you'll notice that Cn = [(-1)^n * 1/n!] lies in-between. You can therefore say that because

1/2^n

and

-1/2^n

converge, the value in-between them converges also. What would that be the?
 
but how do you come up with 1/2^n and -1/2^n?? The value would be 0?
 
Yes all the values converge to zero. I really don't like to use the squeeze theorem, whenever I have to use it it's just by trial and error.

There should however be another theorem which relates to sequences that jump back and fourth. It's called the Absolute Value Theorem, which would allow you to more easily find the convergence of a sequence like this.
 
ok thank you so much!
 

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