Using Feynman rules to calculate amplitude

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To calculate the Feynman amplitude from a diagram, one applies the Feynman rules, which are detailed in quantum field theory (QFT) textbooks like Srednicki. The discussion focuses on vacuum "bubble" diagrams in φ^4 scalar theory, which contribute to the vacuum-to-vacuum transition amplitude in perturbation theory. While these diagrams are not necessary for evaluating S-matrix elements due to cancellation in the LSZ reduction formula, they can be formally evaluated using any regularization method, with dimensional regularization being particularly convenient. The example provided illustrates the calculation of an eight-point diagram, detailing the vertex factor and symmetry considerations. Overall, understanding these principles is crucial for accurate amplitude calculations in QFT.
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Given a diagram, how is one supposed to apply the feynman rules to calculate the feynman amplitude?
 

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This is explained in any QFT textbook. What book/article did you get your picture from?
 
Those don't look like Feynman diagrams to me.
 
Srednicki. But these are not calculated in srednicki. To clarify, they are the vacuum feynman diagrams for $$\phi ^{4}$$ scalar theory
 
These are vacuum "bubble" diagrams, i.e., they contribute to the vacuum->vacuum transition amplitude in perturbation theory. To evaluate S-matrix elements you don't need them, because they cancel in the LSZ reduction formula via the correct normalization of the scattering amplitude.

To formally evaluate them you just use the Feynman rules and use any regularization procedure you like. Dimensional regularization is pretty convenient also in ##\phi^4## theory. Take the "8 diagram". The vertex stands for ##-\mathrm{i} \lambda/4!##. Then you have 3 ways to connect the first leg at the vertex with another line and then only 1 to connect the remaining legs. Thus you have a symmetry factor ##3##. The final dim-reg expression is.
$$\mathrm{i} V=\frac{\mathrm{i} \lambda \mu^{2 \epsilon}}{8} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \frac{\mathrm{d}^d l_1}{(2 \pi)^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \frac{\mathrm{d}^d l_2}{(2 \pi)^d} \frac{1}{(m^2-l_1^2)(m^2-l_2^2)},$$
where ##d=4-2 \epsilon## is the dimension of space-time.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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