Using Maclaurin series to find 2005-order derivative

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the 2005th derivative of the function f(x) = arctan((1+x)/(1-x)) at x=0, using Maclaurin series expansion. The context is centered around series representation and differentiation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of Maclaurin series and the significance of specific terms in the series expansion. There are inquiries about how to compare infinite series and the implications of differentiating terms in the series.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the relationship between the series and the derivatives. Some guidance has been offered regarding the behavior of terms when differentiating, particularly how terms involving x^2005 contribute to the derivative at zero.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the π/4 term becomes irrelevant in the context of differentiation, and there is an emphasis on the importance of specific coefficients in the series expansion.

hqjb
Messages
38
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Let f(x) = \arctan(\frac{1+x}{1-x})
Find f^{2005}(0)

Homework Equations



I'm guessing this has to do with maclaurin's?

The Attempt at a Solution


...
<br /> f(x) = \pi /4 + \sum^∞_{n = 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}<br />

\sum^∞_{n = 0}\frac{f^n(0)x^n}{n!} = \pi /4 + \sum^∞_{n = 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}

So anyone knows how I go about from here? The answer is 2004!(factorial)
How do you compare two infinite series can you cancel them out?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
(d/dx)xn = nxn-1

(dp/dxp) xn = n!/(n-p)! xn-p
(can you see where this formula comes from?)

Also, (d/dx)C=0

They want the value of the 2005th derivative at 0. If you think about it, the term involving x2005 will become a constant after 2005 differentiations. All terms before x2005 will disappear due to (d/dx)C=0, and all terms after are irrelevant since we are calculating at 0.

The term at x2005 is supplied by the formula you found:

Ʃ (-1)n/(2n+1) x2n+1

Of course, the π/4 term also disappears.
 
Last edited:
You can compare the two series since they are polynomials in x, and what you are interested in is only one of the terms of the polynomial. f^(2000) occurs exactly in the term of x^(2005), so you can ignore all other terms and compare the coefficients of x^2005 on both sides.
 
Harrisonized said:
(d/dx)xn = nxn-1

(dp/dxp) xn = n!/(n-p)! xn-p
(can you see where this formula comes from?)

Also, (d/dx)C=0

They want the value of the 2005th derivative at 0. If you think about it, the term involving x2005 will become a constant after 2005 differentiations. All terms before x2005 will disappear due to (d/dx)C=0, and all terms after are irrelevant since we are calculating at 0.

The term at x2005 is supplied by the formula you found:

Ʃ (-1)n/(2n+1) x2n+1

Of course, the π/4 term also disappears.

lol_nl said:
You can compare the two series since they are polynomials in x, and what you are interested in is only one of the terms of the polynomial. f^(2000) occurs exactly in the term of x^(2005), so you can ignore all other terms and compare the coefficients of x^2005 on both sides.

Ah...i get it now so,
f^{2005}(0)=\frac{2005!}{2005} * (-1)^{1002}

Thanks for your help!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 48 ·
2
Replies
48
Views
6K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
17
Views
2K