Using Maclaurin series to find 2005-order derivative

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Homework Statement



Let [itex]f(x) = \arctan(\frac{1+x}{1-x})[/itex]
Find [itex]f^{2005}[/itex](0)

Homework Equations



I'm guessing this has to do with maclaurin's?

The Attempt at a Solution


...
[itex] f(x) = \pi /4 + \sum^∞_{n = 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}[/itex]

[itex]\sum^∞_{n = 0}\frac{f^n(0)x^n}{n!} = \pi /4 + \sum^∞_{n = 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}[/itex]

So anyone knows how I go about from here? The answer is 2004!(factorial)
How do you compare two infinite series can you cancel them out?
 
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(d/dx)xn = nxn-1

(dp/dxp) xn = n!/(n-p)! xn-p
(can you see where this formula comes from?)

Also, (d/dx)C=0

They want the value of the 2005th derivative at 0. If you think about it, the term involving x2005 will become a constant after 2005 differentiations. All terms before x2005 will disappear due to (d/dx)C=0, and all terms after are irrelevant since we are calculating at 0.

The term at x2005 is supplied by the formula you found:

Ʃ (-1)n/(2n+1) x2n+1

Of course, the π/4 term also disappears.
 
Last edited:
You can compare the two series since they are polynomials in x, and what you are interested in is only one of the terms of the polynomial. f^(2000) occurs exactly in the term of x^(2005), so you can ignore all other terms and compare the coefficients of x^2005 on both sides.
 
Harrisonized said:
(d/dx)xn = nxn-1

(dp/dxp) xn = n!/(n-p)! xn-p
(can you see where this formula comes from?)

Also, (d/dx)C=0

They want the value of the 2005th derivative at 0. If you think about it, the term involving x2005 will become a constant after 2005 differentiations. All terms before x2005 will disappear due to (d/dx)C=0, and all terms after are irrelevant since we are calculating at 0.

The term at x2005 is supplied by the formula you found:

Ʃ (-1)n/(2n+1) x2n+1

Of course, the π/4 term also disappears.

lol_nl said:
You can compare the two series since they are polynomials in x, and what you are interested in is only one of the terms of the polynomial. f^(2000) occurs exactly in the term of x^(2005), so you can ignore all other terms and compare the coefficients of x^2005 on both sides.

Ah...i get it now so,
[itex]f^{2005}(0)=\frac{2005!}{2005} * (-1)^{1002}[/itex]

Thanks for your help!
 

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