Using Squeeze Theorem To Solve An Obvious Problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating a limit using the squeeze theorem, specifically concerning the behavior of the function sin(x) divided by x as x approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the application of the squeeze theorem, questioning the original poster's reasoning about limits and infinity. They discuss the bounded nature of the sine function and its implications for the limit evaluation.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering insights into the properties of sine and its bounds. Some guidance has been provided regarding the appropriate functions to use in the squeeze theorem, and there is a recognition of the need to clarify definitions and assumptions.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of an image that is no longer visible, which may have contained important information for the problem context. The original poster's reasoning about limits and infinity is also questioned, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the concepts involved.

Lancelot59
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Homework Statement


So we have to evaluate this using the squeeze theorem:
http://www4c.wolframalpha.com/Calculate/MSP/MSP230197da409360513h500003f12d5h334he7b32?MSPStoreType=image/gif&s=56


The Attempt at a Solution


Well it's pretty obvious that it will go to zero. Reason being that anything divided by infinity is zero...but how do you evaluate this with the squeeze theorem? There's only one equation given, and it's easily solved.

Thanks in advance.
 
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Lancelot59 said:
Well it's pretty obvious that it will go to zero. Reason being that anything divided by infinity is zero...
That is a pretty lousy (or extremely sloppy formulated) reason :-p
You seem to think that \lim_{x\to \infty}\frac{f(x)}{x}=0 no matter what f is. That is certainly not true (take e.g. f(x)=x, or f(x)=x^2).

The key observation here is that the sine is bounded, in particular |\sin x|\leq 1 for all x, in other words -1\leq \sin x\leq 1. Try to use this.
 
Hmm, the image of the function vanished.

So you're saying I should use -1 and 1 as my other two functions that go to infinity to evaluate sine at infinity?
 
Since sinx only goes between 1 and -1, it will never make sinx/x go higher or lower than 1/x or -1/x, respectively. Can you understand why?
 
I guess. Because trig functions have a range equal to that of +-their amplitude?
 
The amplitude of sinx is 1. Will numbers between 0 and 1 (ignoring the negative values of sinx) multiplied with 1/x ever make 1/x be greater than it normally is?
After than, consider the negative values of sinx and -1/x.
 
Lancelot59 said:
Hmm, the image of the function vanished.
I don't quite understand what you mean by this.
So you're saying I should use -1 and 1 as my other two functions that go to infinity to evaluate sine at infinity?
No, you don't need to 'evaluate sine at infinity' (this not a meaningful expression).

Could you please state the squeezing theorem? Then you will immediately see what to do with the estimate of sine being between -1 and 1.
 
I just got it, thanks for the idea bouncing guys. It should be evaluated as "-1/x <= sin(x) <= 1/x".

Yay!
 

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