latentcorpse
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is it true that if [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{F}=0 , \nabla \times \vec{F}=0[/itex] then [itex]\vec{F}=0[/itex]?
The discussion revolves around the conditions under which a vector field \(\vec{F}\) can be considered zero based on its divergence and curl, specifically when \(\nabla \cdot \vec{F} = 0\) and \(\nabla \times \vec{F} = 0\). This falls under the subject area of vector calculus.
The discussion is ongoing, with participants raising questions about the validity of the initial assumptions and providing examples that challenge the notion that \(\vec{F}\) must equal zero under the given conditions.
Some participants are providing specific examples of vector fields, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the implications of divergence and curl. There is a focus on clarifying definitions and assumptions related to vector fields.
latentcorpse said:is it true that if [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{F}=0 , \nabla \times \vec{F}=0[/itex] then [itex]\vec{F}=0[/itex]?
latentcorpse said:the divergence of 3x is 3 not 0 though?