Kreizhn
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Homework Statement
Let R be a commutative ring, and let [itex]F = R^{\oplus B}[/itex] be a free R-module over R. Let m be a maximal ideal of R and take [itex]k = R/m[/itex] to be the quotient field. Show that [itex]F/mF \cong k^{\oplus B}[/itex] as k-vector spaces.
The Attempt at a Solution
If we remove the F and k notations, we essentially just want to show that
[tex]R^{\oplus B}/ m R^{\oplus B} \cong (R/m)^{\oplus B}[/tex]
and so it seems like we should use the first isomorphism theorem.
Now we define [itex]R^{\oplus B} = \{ \alpha: B \to R, \alpha(x) = 0 \text{ cofinitely in } B \}[/itex]. If [itex]\pi : R \to R/m[/itex] is the natural projection map, define [itex]\phi: R^{\oplus B} \to (R/m)^{\oplus B}[/itex] by sending [itex]\alpha \mapsto \pi \circ \alpha[/itex]. This is an R-mod homomorphism, and is surjective by the surjectivity of the projection. Hence we need only show that the kernel of this map is given by [itex]mR^{\oplus B}[/itex]
Now
[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> \ker\phi &= \{ \alpha:B \to R, \forall x \in B \quad \pi(\alpha(x)) = 0_k \} \\<br /> &= \{ \alpha:B \to R, \forall x \in B, \alpha(x) \in m \} \end{align*}[/tex]
where I may have skipped a few steps in this derivation, but I think this is right. Now it's easy to show that [itex]mF \subseteq \ker \phi[/itex] since m is an ideal. However, the other inclusion is where I'm having trouble.
I guess maybe the whole question could be rephrased to avoid the baggage that comes with the question. Namely, if [itex]\alpha: B \to R[/itex] is such that [itex]\forall x \in B, \alpha(x)[/itex] lies in a maximal ideal of R, should that [itex]\alpha = r \beta[/itex] for some [itex]\beta: B \to R[/itex].
Edit: I guess I'm hoping to show they're isomorphic as R-modules, and then push that over to k-vector spaces. Maybe this is where my mistake is coming from?
Edit 2: Fixed mistake made in "without baggage" statement.
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