Verify this statement if f(x) is infinitely differentiable

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on verifying the statement regarding the function f(x) being infinitely differentiable and its implications for Taylor series expansion. Participants analyze the equation f(mx) = f(x) + (m-1)xf'(x) + (m-1)²/2! x² f''(x) and utilize Taylor's series to derive relationships between variables. The conclusion emphasizes that merely being infinitely differentiable is insufficient; the function must also be analytic for the Taylor series to converge to the function itself.

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  • Understanding of Taylor's Series and its applications
  • Knowledge of infinitely differentiable functions
  • Familiarity with the concept of analyticity in functions
  • Basic calculus, including derivatives and series expansions
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  • Learn about the differences between infinitely differentiable and analytic functions
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Homework Statement


f(mx)=f(x) + (m-1)xf'(x)+\dfrac{(m-1)^2}{2!} x^2 f''(x)...


Homework Equations


Taylor's Series


The Attempt at a Solution


If I approximate the LHS of the eqn using Taylor's polynomial,
f(mx)=f(mx)+mxf'(mx)+\dfrac{(mx)^2f''(mx)}{2!}+...

But, I'm lost from here. It doesn't resemble RHS at all!
 
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Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild
 
ehild said:
Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild

Doing so gives me f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+...

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?
 
Last edited:
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?
 
haruspex said:
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?

t=(m-1)x
 
utkarshakash said:
Doing so gives me f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+...

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?

because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.
 
ehild said:
because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.

Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.
 
utkarshakash said:
Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.

Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.
 
Last edited:
Ray Vickson said:
Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.

But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
 
  • #10
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?

What has that got to do with anything? Of course the Taylor expansion has factorials in the denominators---so what?
 
  • #11
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.
 
  • #12
haruspex said:
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.

Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+.....

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.
 
  • #13
utkarshakash said:
Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+.....

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.

Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other
 
  • #14
haruspex said:
Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other

$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
 
  • #15
utkarshakash said:
$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.
 
  • #16
haruspex said:
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.

Thanks!
 
  • #17
By the way, is the only condition here that f be infinitely differentiable? If that is the case then it does not necessarily follow that the Taylor's series for f itself converges to f. For that you need that f is "analytic".
 

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