Verify this statement if f(x) is infinitely differentiable

  • Thread starter Thread starter utkarshakash
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Differentiable
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of infinitely differentiable functions and their Taylor series expansions. Participants explore the validity of a specific equation involving a function \( f \) and its derivatives, as well as the implications of differentiability on the convergence of Taylor series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to apply Taylor's series to both sides of the equation, questioning the assumptions made about the variables involved. Some suggest expanding the function around different points and explore the implications of treating certain variables as constants.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and questioning each other's reasoning. Some have offered guidance on how to approach the problem, while others express uncertainty about the implications of differentiability and the need for analyticity in the context of Taylor series.

Contextual Notes

There are mentions of potential missing factorials in the original problem statement and the distinction between infinitely differentiable functions and analytic functions, raising questions about the completeness of the problem setup.

utkarshakash
Gold Member
Messages
852
Reaction score
13

Homework Statement


f(mx)=f(x) + (m-1)xf'(x)+\dfrac{(m-1)^2}{2!} x^2 f''(x)...


Homework Equations


Taylor's Series


The Attempt at a Solution


If I approximate the LHS of the eqn using Taylor's polynomial,
f(mx)=f(mx)+mxf'(mx)+\dfrac{(mx)^2f''(mx)}{2!}+...

But, I'm lost from here. It doesn't resemble RHS at all!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild
 
ehild said:
Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild

Doing so gives me f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+...

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?
 
Last edited:
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?
 
haruspex said:
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?

t=(m-1)x
 
utkarshakash said:
Doing so gives me f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+...

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?

because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.
 
ehild said:
because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.

Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.
 
utkarshakash said:
Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.

Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.
 
Last edited:
Ray Vickson said:
Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.

But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
 
  • #10
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?

What has that got to do with anything? Of course the Taylor expansion has factorials in the denominators---so what?
 
  • #11
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.
 
  • #12
haruspex said:
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.

Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+.....

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.
 
  • #13
utkarshakash said:
Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+.....

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.

Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other
 
  • #14
haruspex said:
Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other

$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
 
  • #15
utkarshakash said:
$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.
 
  • #16
haruspex said:
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.

Thanks!
 
  • #17
By the way, is the only condition here that f be infinitely differentiable? If that is the case then it does not necessarily follow that the Taylor's series for f itself converges to f. For that you need that f is "analytic".
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K