leo.
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I'm studying Quantum Field Theory and the first example being given in the textbook is the massless Klein Gordon field whose equation is just the wave equation \Box \ \phi = 0. The only problem is that I'm not being able to get the same solution as the book. In the book the author states that the general solution is:
\phi(\mathbf{x},t)=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}(a_p e^{-i\omega_p t + i\mathbf{x}\cdot \mathbf{p}}+a_p^\ast e^{i\omega_p t - i\mathbf{x}\cdot \mathbf{p}})
Now to get this I expandand \Box \ \phi = (\partial_t^2 - \nabla^2)\phi and took the Fourier transform so that we get the equation (\partial_t^2 + \omega_p^2)\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)=0 where \omega_p = |p|.
This equation now has \mathbf{p} just as a parameter and we can easily solve it since it is just the simple harmonic oscilator equation of motion. We end up with
\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)= a_p e^{-i\omega_p t}+b_p e^{i\omega_p t}
If we now use the Fourier inversion formula we have that
\phi(\mathbf{x},t)=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)e^{i\mathbf{p}\cdot \mathbf{x}}=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}(a_p e^{-i\omega_p t}+b_p e^{i\omega_p t})e^{i\mathbf{p}\cdot \mathbf{x}}.
This is almost the result, but we need, however, to ensure \phi is a real field. For that we need to apply the reality condition to the Fourier transform:
\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},-t)=\hat{\phi}^\ast(\mathbf{p},t)
This provides us with
a_p e^{i\omega_p t} + b_p e^{-i\omega_p t} = a_p^\ast e^{i\omega_p t} + b_p^\ast e^{-i\omega_p t}
Now I'm stuck here. I'm not getting how from this condition I can arrive naturally at the textbook answer. How can I proceed this to arrive at the same solution that the textbook presents?
\phi(\mathbf{x},t)=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}(a_p e^{-i\omega_p t + i\mathbf{x}\cdot \mathbf{p}}+a_p^\ast e^{i\omega_p t - i\mathbf{x}\cdot \mathbf{p}})
Now to get this I expandand \Box \ \phi = (\partial_t^2 - \nabla^2)\phi and took the Fourier transform so that we get the equation (\partial_t^2 + \omega_p^2)\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)=0 where \omega_p = |p|.
This equation now has \mathbf{p} just as a parameter and we can easily solve it since it is just the simple harmonic oscilator equation of motion. We end up with
\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)= a_p e^{-i\omega_p t}+b_p e^{i\omega_p t}
If we now use the Fourier inversion formula we have that
\phi(\mathbf{x},t)=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},t)e^{i\mathbf{p}\cdot \mathbf{x}}=\int \dfrac{d^3\mathbf{p}}{(2\pi)^3}(a_p e^{-i\omega_p t}+b_p e^{i\omega_p t})e^{i\mathbf{p}\cdot \mathbf{x}}.
This is almost the result, but we need, however, to ensure \phi is a real field. For that we need to apply the reality condition to the Fourier transform:
\hat{\phi}(\mathbf{p},-t)=\hat{\phi}^\ast(\mathbf{p},t)
This provides us with
a_p e^{i\omega_p t} + b_p e^{-i\omega_p t} = a_p^\ast e^{i\omega_p t} + b_p^\ast e^{-i\omega_p t}
Now I'm stuck here. I'm not getting how from this condition I can arrive naturally at the textbook answer. How can I proceed this to arrive at the same solution that the textbook presents?