What Are the Dimensions of a Wave Function in Various Box Problems?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the dimensions of wave functions in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of one-dimensional and two-dimensional box problems, with an inquiry into generalizing this concept to n dimensions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore whether wave functions have dimensions and what those dimensions might be for different dimensional box problems. There are attempts to derive the dimensions based on the properties of probability density and integration of the wave function.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the dimensionality of wave functions, with varying opinions on whether they are dimensionless or possess specific dimensions. Clarifications regarding the relationship between wave functions and probability density have been discussed, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the interpretation of wave functions and their dimensions, as well as the implications of integrating their square modulus over space.

armis
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Homework Statement



Does the wave function have a dimension? If it does, what are the dimensions for 1D and 2D box problems?Can you generalise this to n dimensions?


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Yes, it does have dimensions. For 1D box it's m^{-2} , for 2D box it's m^{-1} thus for n dimensions it should be m^{n-3} . Is this correct?<br /> <br /> thanks
 
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I think it has no dimensions. p(r) = |\psi|^2 is the density of the probability of finding a practical in a specific location.

But maybe I'm wrong
 
a wave function inside a 1 dim box is
\Psi= \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}sin(\frac{px}{\hbar})
it appears it is per root meter, which is weird. but on the other hand, the probability in the interval dx is:
|\Psi|^{2} dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{meter}}^{2}*meter = 1
which would make it dimensionless, which could make sense. I've never asked myself this.
 
Last edited:
It's not dimensionless. If it were, then when you integrated its square modulus over all space you would not get a pure number. (Note to the second poster - the modulus squared of the wavefunction is not a probability, but a probability density, which had dimensions.). That is, since

\int_{\rm all space} d\mathbf{r} \left|\psi(\mathbf{r})\right|^2 = 1

\psi(\mathbf{r}) must accordingly have the root of the inverse dimensions of d\mathbf{r}, which are length^{-1/2} for a 1D problem (d\mathbf{r} = dx), length^{-1} for a 2D problem (d\mathbf{r} = dxdy), etc.

So, the original poster is correct about the wave functions having dimensions, but you got the dimensions incorrect.
 
Last edited:
I stand corrected. although I did say |psy|^2 is the density of probability.
 
Mute said:
\psi(\mathbf{r}) must accordingly have the root of the inverse dimensions of d\mathbf{r}, which are length^{-1/2} for a 1D problem (d\mathbf{r} = dx), length^{-1} for a 2D problem (d\mathbf{r} = dxdy), etc.

Oh, I see. Thanks
 

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