What Are the Key Differences Between Fermion and Scalar Field Interactions?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the differences between fermion and scalar field interactions, specifically through the coupling terms \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\psi \varphi (scalar coupling) and \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\gamma_5\psi\varphi (pseudoscalar coupling). The key distinction lies in their transformation properties under parity, with scalar couplings being invariant and pseudoscalar couplings changing sign. The weak interaction is highlighted as preferentially coupling to left-handed fermions and right-handed anti-fermions, with no coupling to right-handed fermions at tree level. The weak force's complexity is noted, particularly in its vector and axial vector coupling components.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Dirac fields and their components
  • Familiarity with quantum field theory concepts, particularly scalar and pseudoscalar interactions
  • Knowledge of parity transformation in particle physics
  • Basic comprehension of weak interactions and their coupling mechanisms
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of parity transformation on particle interactions
  • Study the properties of vector and axial vector couplings in weak interactions
  • Explore the experimental evidence of left-handed particle coupling, such as the SLD polarized e+/e- beam experiment
  • Examine the role of \gamma_5 in quantum field theory and its effects on fermion interactions
USEFUL FOR

Particle physicists, quantum field theorists, and students studying the nuances of fermion interactions and weak force dynamics will benefit from this discussion.

jdstokes
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Suppose I couple a fermion field to a scalar field using \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\psi \varphi and \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\gamma_5\psi\varphi.

I'm trying to understand what would be the physical difference between these interactions. I know that (1/2)(1\pm \gamma_5) approximately projects out the left and right handed components of Dirac fields and that this is related to the fact that the weak interaction couples preferentially to left-handed particles and right-handed anti-particles, but other than that I'm pretty clueless.
 
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Your first interaction lagrangian is a scalar coupling, while the second is a pseudoscalar coupling. Check how they both transform under parity.
 
What is the physical difference in the interactions apart from their transformation properties?
 
The symmetries of the interaction define what interactions they are used to model.
 
jdstokes said:
Suppose I couple a fermion field to a scalar field using \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\psi \varphi and \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\gamma_5\psi\varphi.

I'm trying to understand what would be the physical difference between these interactions. I know that (1/2)(1\pm \gamma_5) approximately projects out the left and right handed components of Dirac fields and that this is related to the fact that the weak interaction couples preferentially to left-handed particles and right-handed anti-particles, but other than that I'm pretty clueless.

The weak force not only prefers left-handed; at tree level there is no weak coupling to right-handed fields.

The weak force is slightly more complicated than your model because vector bosons are vectors (duh). You can write the weak coupling as a sum of alpha*Vector + beta*Axial Vector couplings. Up to an internal minus sign (always mix it up), the weak coupling is pure V+A, so it couples solely to left-handed fields. The most obvious physical observable used to demonstrate this is the polarized e+/e- beam experiment of SLD...
 

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