What is a Contour? Complex Analysis Explained

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A contour in complex analysis refers to a curve in the complex plane, not a region bounded by a curve. When integrating over a contour, it typically means performing the integral along a closed curve. The Cauchy-Riemann relations imply that if a function is analytic inside a contour, the integral over that contour is zero. However, if there is a pole within the contour, the integral will yield a non-zero result. Thus, the equality of integrals over two contours only holds when both contours enclose the same singularities.
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Simple question, this word keeps popping up in complex analysis but my book hasn't given an exact definition of what a contour is. Is it just a region in the complex plane bounded by a curve? So when the books says for instance "integrate over a contour" is that equivalent to just integrating over a closed surface in ℝ2?

Another question which also troubles me quite a bit:

Due to the cauchy riemann relations we have:

\ointCf(z)dz = 0

But still I often see things like: "Consider two closed contours A and B in the argand diagram, B being sufficiently small that it lies completely within C. Show that if f(z) is analytic in the region between the two contours then:
\ointCf(z)dz = \ointBf(z)dz
But shouldn't that be obvious since they are both equal to zero?
 
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aaaa202 said:
Simple question, this word keeps popping up in complex analysis but my book hasn't given an exact definition of what a contour is. Is it just a region in the complex plane bounded by a curve? So when the books says for instance "integrate over a contour" is that equivalent to just integrating over a closed surface in ℝ2?

Another question which also troubles me quite a bit:

Due to the cauchy riemann relations we have:

\ointCf(z)dz = 0

But still I often see things like: "Consider two closed contours A and B in the argand diagram, B being sufficiently small that it lies completely within C. Show that if f(z) is analytic in the region between the two contours then:
\ointCf(z)dz = \ointBf(z)dz
But shouldn't that be obvious since they are both equal to zero?

The contour integral is zero if f(z) is analytic inside the contour. But suppose f has a pole inside the contour. That is the situation being considered in your last example. Both contour integrals will give the same non-zero answer.
 
aaaa202 said:
Simple question, this word keeps popping up in complex analysis but my book hasn't given an exact definition of what a contour is. Is it just a region in the complex plane bounded by a curve? So when the books says for instance "integrate over a contour" is that equivalent to just integrating over a closed surface in ℝ2?

Another question which also troubles me quite a bit:

Due to the cauchy riemann relations we have:

\ointCf(z)dz = 0

But still I often see things like: "Consider two closed contours A and B in the argand diagram, B being sufficiently small that it lies completely within C. Show that if f(z) is analytic in the region between the two contours then:
\ointCf(z)dz = \ointBf(z)dz
But shouldn't that be obvious since they are both equal to zero?

Contours are curves, not regions. Typically, a "contour integral" refers to an integral over a closed curve.

RGV
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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