What is the basic assumption behind the Cauchy-Riemann equation?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the basic assumptions underlying the Cauchy-Riemann equations, particularly focusing on the conditions required for limits to exist along different axes in the complex plane. Participants explore the implications of these assumptions in the context of differentiation and limits.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why the limit must yield the same value when approaching a point along both the real and imaginary axes.
  • Another participant asserts that for a limit to exist, it must be consistent from all directions, specifically along the real and imaginary axes.
  • A different participant challenges the necessity of equal differentiation along the real and imaginary axes, suggesting that partial derivatives can differ.
  • Further clarification is provided that while limits must agree from different directions, the differentiation itself does not necessarily have to be the same along those axes.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the differentiation along the real and imaginary axes must be the same, indicating a lack of consensus on this aspect of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the distinction between limits and derivatives, noting that while limits must agree, the derivatives may not necessarily align, which introduces complexity in understanding the assumptions behind the equations.

iVenky
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Recently I read about Cauchy-Riemann equations and I got a doubt in that.

I can understand the derivation of it but I couldn't understand the basic assumption with which you derive that.

Why should the limit give the same value for both real and for imaginary axis?

I hope you can understand the question. If you can't understand the question just reply.

Thanks a lot
 
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It comes down to the fact that for the limit to exist, it should exist from every direction

you approach a point. In particular, it must exist as you approach along the real

axis as well as when you approach along the imaginary axis, and the two limits

must be equal.
 
That point is valid if you are finding just the limit as in

[itex]\lim_{x \to a} f(x,b)[/itex] to be same as
[itex]\lim_{y \to b} f(a,y)[/itex]

But it is not necessary that the differentiation with respect to real and imaginary axis had to be same, right? I mean it's like partial derivative where derivative with respect to one axes (real in this case) need not be same as the derivative with respect to another axes (imaginary axes).

thanks a lot for your help.
 
iVenky said:
That point is valid if you are finding just the limit as in

[itex]\lim_{x \to a} f(x,b)[/itex] to be same as
[itex]\lim_{y \to b} f(a,y)[/itex]

But it is not necessary that the differentiation with respect to real and imaginary axis had to be same, right? I mean it's like partial derivative where derivative with respect to one axes (real in this case) need not be same as the derivative with respect to another axes (imaginary axes).

thanks a lot for your help.

But you are finding a limit; the derivative is a limit , the quotient limit

[f(z+zo)-f(z)]/(z-zo) as z→zo . But z can approach zo along _every possible

complex direction. Then f'(z) exists when this limit exist,so that the limit must

exist along any direction along which you approximate zo, and for the limit to

exist, it must be the same no-matter how you approximate zo. In particular,

(re Cauchy-Riemann) , the approximation along the x-axis and the y-axis must

exist, and must agree with each other.
 

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