matt grime
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Damn it iI just wiped my reply.
OkIf you are stating that the number of rows has card 2^aleph-0 and that you are using these terms in the conventional way that mathematics DEFINES them, then you are stating that there is a bijection between N and its power set. Now you know there isn't one in the case of finite sets, and the same proof states the same in the infinite case if written properly, as does the observation that the reals do not have measure zero.
However, we have established that you are not using aleph-0 in its conventional sense, so in your theory who knows what happens. The important thing is to realize that the things you are talking about are not the things a mathematician talks about.
It is by definition that two sets have the same cardinality iff they are bijective, and by definition that 2^aleph-0 is the cardinality of the power set of N. We could have declared aleph-1 to be the cardinality of the power set of N, but we didn't because the statement that the cardinality of the power set of N is the 'smallest' uncountable cardinal is independent of ZF! (Cohen et al, the continuum hpothesis). There is no bijection between N and P(N) therefore we DECLARE them to have different cardinalities. Cardinality is not some abstract concept independent of alephs that we 'model' with alephs, they are inextricably bound. So it is because you refuse to accept a definition that you are apparently contradicting mathematics. You cannot contradict a definition, only state that it does not do what you want.
You should then offer a different label for a different object. Your aleph-0 is not the aleph-0 of mathematics, it does not behave the same way and does not encode the same information, which is simply the isomorphism class of the set
OkIf you are stating that the number of rows has card 2^aleph-0 and that you are using these terms in the conventional way that mathematics DEFINES them, then you are stating that there is a bijection between N and its power set. Now you know there isn't one in the case of finite sets, and the same proof states the same in the infinite case if written properly, as does the observation that the reals do not have measure zero.
However, we have established that you are not using aleph-0 in its conventional sense, so in your theory who knows what happens. The important thing is to realize that the things you are talking about are not the things a mathematician talks about.
It is by definition that two sets have the same cardinality iff they are bijective, and by definition that 2^aleph-0 is the cardinality of the power set of N. We could have declared aleph-1 to be the cardinality of the power set of N, but we didn't because the statement that the cardinality of the power set of N is the 'smallest' uncountable cardinal is independent of ZF! (Cohen et al, the continuum hpothesis). There is no bijection between N and P(N) therefore we DECLARE them to have different cardinalities. Cardinality is not some abstract concept independent of alephs that we 'model' with alephs, they are inextricably bound. So it is because you refuse to accept a definition that you are apparently contradicting mathematics. You cannot contradict a definition, only state that it does not do what you want.
You should then offer a different label for a different object. Your aleph-0 is not the aleph-0 of mathematics, it does not behave the same way and does not encode the same information, which is simply the isomorphism class of the set