What is the Constant of Proportionality in Newton's Second Law of Motion?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of the constant of proportionality in Newton's Second Law of Motion, particularly in the context of linear momentum and force. Participants explore the relationship between force, momentum, and the implications of defining units in physics.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the transition from proportionality to equality in the context of force and momentum, questioning how the constant of proportionality is determined to be one. Some explore the implications of defining units, while others provide examples and hypothetical scenarios to illustrate their points.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various interpretations being explored regarding the definition of units and the nature of proportionality in Newton's laws. Some participants have offered insights into how the unit of force is defined, contributing to the understanding of the constant of proportionality.

Contextual Notes

There are mentions of assumptions regarding mass constancy and the implications of unit definitions on the proportionality constant. Participants also reflect on the practical implications of these definitions in real-world scenarios.

andyrk
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"The rate of change of linear momentum of a body with time is directly proportional to the net force acting on it."

=>F\proptodp/dt​
Then how do we suddenly come to:
F=dp/dt?​
We took the proportionality constant as 1 but why?
How to determine that the constant of proportionality is 1?
 
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Linear momentum is defined as p=mv

Assuming there is no change in mass and differentiating,
you get F=dp/dt
 
Expanding on WannabeNewton's post the Newton is defined such that the constant of proportionality is one. Imagine proving by experiment that a is proportional to F/M where the unit of F is yet to be defined. We can write:

a=kF/M

If now we define one Newton as being the resultant force that gives a mass of 1kg an acceleration of 1 metre per second squared then k becomes one.
I could come up with an alternative definition and suggest that the unit of force should be the turnip where one turnip is the resultant force that gives 2.7kg an acceleration 4.6 m/second squared. K would now be an awkward number and I don't think people will use my definition.
 
Dadface said:
Expanding on WannabeNewton's post the Newton is defined such that the constant of proportionality is one. Imagine proving by experiment that a is proportional to F/M where the unit of F is yet to be defined. We can write:

a=kF/M

If now we define one Newton as being the resultant force that gives a mass of 1kg an acceleration of 1 metre per second squared then k becomes one.
I could come up with an alternative definition and suggest that the unit of force should be the turnip where one turnip is the resultant force that gives 2.7kg an acceleration 4.6 m/second squared. K would now be an awkward number and I don't think people will use my definition.

Defining the unit so that the constant of proportionality is 1 also explains why the Newton is such a whoosey amount, meaning that most forces encountered have a large value - like my weight is approx 1000N. A Newton is more like the weight of small chocolate bars.
 
Masquerade178 said:
Linear momentum is defined as p=mv

Assuming there is no change in mass and differentiating,
you get F=dp/dt
Not equal, proportional.
What about the proportionality constant then?
 
Edit: Apologies for the previous post. I read your answers after I submitted mine.
 

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