What is the correct way to use Stirling's approximation in this example?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Stirling's approximation in calculating the probability of obtaining exactly 500 heads when flipping 1000 coins. Participants are exploring how to correctly apply the approximation to factorial expressions involved in the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of Stirling's approximation for large factorials, questioning how to correctly substitute values for N. There are attempts to simplify expressions and clarify the notation used in the approximation.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on manipulating the expressions, while others express confusion regarding calculations and the handling of large numbers. There is a mix of interpretations regarding the correct application of Stirling's approximation, and no consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention issues with calculator limitations due to the size of the numbers involved, and there is a suggestion to simplify fractions before calculating. The discussion reflects a need for clarity on the assumptions and definitions related to Stirling's approximation.

leonne
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Homework Statement


I don't really understand how to use Stirling's approximation. here's an example
you flip 1000 coins, whts the probability of getting exactly 500 head and 500tails

Homework Equations


N!=NNe-N(2pieN)1/2

The Attempt at a Solution


wht they did was
21000 total number outcome
\Omega(500)=1000!/500!2 multiplicity
than used the Stirling's approximation to get this which I don't get how. What do I plug in for N
\Omega(500)=21000/(500pie)1/2
P=\Omega(500)/21000= 1/(500pie)1/2= .025

thanks
 
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you divide the stirling approximation for N=1000 by the square of the stirling approximation for N=500. And it's Pi not pie silly
 
lol thanks,
so it would be 10001000e-1000(2pi1000)1/2/ (500500e-500(2pi500)1/2)2
 
yes and that simplifies to what you want
 
um I don't think that is right i keep getting overflow error.
nvm after typing it in wolfam alpha it worked but how would i do it on my calculator, o well lol
 
Last edited:
leonne said:
um I don't think that is right i keep getting overflow error.
nvm after typing it in wolfam alpha it worked but how would i do it on my calculator, o well lol
These are very big numbers. You might find it easier to reduce the fraction as a whole rather than work out the denominator and numerator separately.

AM
 
We're going to need a bigger calculator.
 
fzero said:
We're going to need a bigger calculator.
Not really. The expression reduces to:

\frac{\Omega(500)}{2^{1000}} = \frac{(2\pi *1000)^{1/2}}{2\pi*500} = \frac{1}{(500\pi)^{1/2}} = .025

AM
 
The Stirling's approximation you want to use for this is

\ln(n) \simeq n\ln(n) - n

This is applicable for n \gg 1. So, for your example

\omega = \frac{1000!}{500!500!}

Take the logarithm of both sides and we find

\omega = \ln(1000!) - 2\ln(500!)

Which, using Stirling's approximation, gives us

\omega = 1000\ln(1000) - 1000 - 2(500\ln(500) - 500)

At this point it is easy to find that \omega = 10^{300}
 

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