What is the difference in this limit?

In summary: If c = 0, you can't say what the limit will be (if any) without doing some more work.Also, if ##\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = \infty##, then the following will be true.##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) + g(x)\right) = \infty##.But ##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) - g(x)\right)## is indeterminate, as is ##\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f
  • #1
sylent33
39
5
Homework Statement
Calculate the limit of the function for + and - infinity
Relevant Equations
L'Hospital
Hello!

I need to calculate the limit of this function ## f(x) = (x^2-9)*e^{-x}## for + and - ## \infty ## Now for + infinity I did this

$$ \frac{(x^2-9)}{e^x} $$ apply L'Hospital since we have infinity divided by infinity; $$\frac{2x}{e^x} $$ Apply L'Hospital again $$ \frac{2}{e^x} $$ the limit is 0. Now for -##\infty## I did exactly the same,getting 0 as my limit but apperently that is wrong.The answer should be ##\infty## and I don't know how.Intuitively that just does not make sense to me because we are simply approching it from a diffrent side but the same value.Some insight would be great,thanks!
 
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  • #2
The initial limit is not of the form infinity over infinity at minus infinity. What does ##e^x## go to?
 
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  • #3
Office_Shredder said:
The initial limit is not of the form infinity over infinity at minus infinity.
@sylent33, this means that L'Hopital's Rule cannot be applied for this limit, assuming that's what you did.
 
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  • #4
Uh okay you are right,if we have minus infinity than the ## e^x ## is not going to infinity but rather to 0,so than we have infinity/0. Now I think that is 0,so I don't need to to use the L'Hopitals rule but,this raises another interesting question.So L'Hopitals rule says we need to get the derivative of both the nummerator and determinator.So let's assume I have a situation infinity/0, can I still apply the L'Hopital rule here?
 
  • #5
Infinity/0 is either positive or negative infinity, depending on the sign of the denominator (or undefined if the denominator keeps flipping signs).L'hopital's rule says you need it to be 0/0 or infinity/infinity in order to take both derivatives. You can't just apply it to arbitrary limits.
 
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  • #6
Office_Shredder said:
Infinity/0 is either positive or negative infinity, depending on the sign of the denominator (or undefined if the denominator keeps flipping signs).L'hopital's rule says you need it to be 0/0 or infinity/infinity in order to take both derivatives. You can't just apply it to arbitrary limits.
You are right of course infinity/0 is infinity...Making really really silly mistakes.Now since the concept of infinity is very abstract and I know that we cannot consider it a number,but ocassionaly the situation comes in let's say calculating limits of a sequence or a function where we have ## 2 *\infty ## or ##2 * -\infty ## and most of these are usually though in class.But not to long ago I stumbled upon an interesting situation,it was a constant number(negative constant number) times - infinity.Something like this

## -2 * \infty ## and the result was ##-\infty ##.Now I know that we cannot consider infinity to be a number,so I am curious as to how does one approach this,is there a certain method you have to use to evalue this,or is it something you would find on a formula sheet?
 
  • #7
sylent33 said:
You are right of course infinity/0 is infinity...
Not necessarily. If the denominator is approaching zero through the negative numbers, the limit won't be infinity.
sylent33 said:
Making really really silly mistakes.Now since the concept of infinity is very abstract and I know that we cannot consider it a number,but ocassionaly the situation comes in let's say calculating limits of a sequence or a function where we have ## 2 *\infty ## or ##2 * -\infty ## and most of these are usually though in class.But not to long ago I stumbled upon an interesting situation,it was a constant number(negative constant number) times - infinity.Something like this

## -2 * \infty ## and the result was ##-\infty ##.Now I know that we cannot consider infinity to be a number,so I am curious as to how does one approach this,is there a certain method you have to use to evalue this,or is it something you would find on a formula sheet?
If you have a function whose limit is infinity, what this really means is that the function values get arbitrarily large as the independent variable approaches its limiting value.

So if you're given that ##\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = \infty##, then the following will be true.
##c\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = \infty##, if c is finite and strictly positive.
##c\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = -\infty##, if c is finite and strictly negative.
If c = 0, you can't say what the limit will be (if any) without doing some more work.

Also, if ##\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = \infty##, then the following will be true.
##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) + g(x)\right) = \infty##.
But ##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) - g(x)\right)## is indeterminate, as is ##\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}##.
 
  • #8
Mark44 said:
Not necessarily. If the denominator is approaching zero through the negative numbers, the limit won't be infinity.
If you have a function whose limit is infinity, what this really means is that the function values get arbitrarily large as the independent variable approaches its limiting value.

So if you're given that ##\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = \infty##, then the following will be true.
##c\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = \infty##, if c is finite and strictly positive.
##c\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = -\infty##, if c is finite and strictly negative.
If c = 0, you can't say what the limit will be (if any) without doing some more work.

Also, if ##\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = \infty##, then the following will be true.
##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) + g(x)\right) = \infty##.
But ##\lim_{x \to a} \left(f(x) - g(x)\right)## is indeterminate, as is ##\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}##.
Great answer but I am not sure I get the "if the denominator part is approaching zero through the negative numbers".But than it wouldn't even be infinity/0, but rather infinity/-infinity?
 
  • #9
Consider ##\lim_{x\to \infty} 1/(e^{-x})## vs ##\lim_{x\to \infty} 1/(-e^{-x})## In both cases it goes to 1/0, but one is infinity and the other is negative infinity. The sign of 0 is not determined.
 
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  • #10
sylent33 said:
Great answer but I am not sure I get the "if the denominator part is approaching zero through the negative numbers".But than it wouldn't even be infinity/0, but rather infinity/-infinity?
No, it wouldn't be of the form infinity/-infinity if the denominator is getting close to zero (but is always negative).
 
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  • #11
I think I get it now,shredder gave an great example
 

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