What is the Invariant Magnitude of 4-Acceleration?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the invariant magnitude of 4-acceleration in the context of special relativity. Participants explore the mathematical expressions for 4-acceleration, its components, and the implications of different frames of reference, focusing on theoretical aspects rather than practical applications or homework problems.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that in an accelerated observer's frame, the 4-acceleration is represented as $$a^\mu=(0,{\bf a})$$, leading to the conclusion that the magnitude is $$-{\bf a}^2$$, which should be invariant.
  • Another participant questions the general expression for 4-acceleration being used and asks for clarification on the starting point of the derivation.
  • A participant references a Wikipedia article as their source for the expression of 4-acceleration, asserting its correctness.
  • Concerns are raised about the consistency of the 3-vector acceleration $$\bf a$$ across different equations, suggesting that a Lorentz Transformation may be necessary to ensure the components are comparable.
  • One participant argues that the 3-vector $$\bf a$$ should be considered arbitrary, pointing out that the Wikipedia article does not impose constraints on it.
  • Another participant derives the expression for the magnitude of 4-acceleration, leading to a complex formulation that includes terms dependent on the velocity and the angle between vectors.
  • There is a suggestion that the derived expression for the norm of 4-acceleration is complicated, reflecting on the challenges of understanding the underlying mathematics.
  • A later reply proposes a reformulation of the expression for the magnitude, attempting to simplify it while retaining its validity.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the interpretation of the 3-vector acceleration and its application in the context of 4-acceleration. There is no consensus on the correct approach or the implications of the derived expressions, indicating ongoing debate and exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants acknowledge the complexity of the mathematical expressions involved and the potential for misunderstanding due to the dependence on frame of reference and the application of Lorentz transformations. There are unresolved questions regarding the assumptions made in the derivations.

copernicus1
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I know that if you go an accelerated observer's frame, the 4-acceleration is $$a^\mu=(0,{\bf a})$$ which means the magnitude is just $$-{\bf a}^2$$ which should be invariant. But I'm having a hard time showing this from the general expression for the 4-acceleration. I get to $$a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^4|{\bf a}|^2-\gamma^6\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}.$$ But I don't know where to go from here. Any ideas or am I just wrong somehow?

Thanks!
 
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copernicus1 said:
I'm having a hard time showing this from the general expression for the 4-acceleration.

What general expression are you starting from?
 
copernicus1 said:
I'm starting from the expression on this page

Yes, that will work. How are you getting from that to the second expression you gave in your OP?
 
I don't think the three vector a is the same in the third equation as in the first and second equations. If you want to be working with the same 4 acceleration, you have to apply the Lorentz Transformation to its components.

Chet
 
Chestermiller said:
I don't think the three vector a is the same in the third equation as in the first and second equations. If you want to be working with the same 4 acceleration, you have to apply the Lorentz Transformation to its components.

Chet
He's right, you know! :wink: In the first and second equation, a is the acceleration 3-vector in the instantaneous rest frame. In the third equation, a is the acceleration 3-vector in an arbitrary rest frame. They agree if you set v = 0 and γ = 1, but not otherwise.
 
I was under the impression [itex]{\bf a}[/itex] was an arbitrary acceleration 3-vector either way? There's nothing in the Wikipedia article that puts any constraints on [itex]{\bf a}[/itex].

This is the way I went about it:

The 4-acceleration is: $$a^\mu=\left(\gamma^4\frac{{\bf v}\cdot{\bf a}}c,\gamma^2{\bf a}+\gamma^4\frac{\bf v\cdot a}{c^2}{\bf v}\right).$$

The magnitude should be given by $$a_\mu a^\mu=\gamma^8\frac{\left|{\bf v\cdot a}\right|^2}{c^2}-\gamma^4|{\bf a}|^2-\gamma^8\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^4}|{\bf v}|^2-2\gamma^6\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}.$$

The first and third terms can be combined to give $$\left(1-\frac{|{\bf v}|^2}{c^2}\right)\gamma^8\frac{\left|{\bf v\cdot a}\right|^2}{c^2}=\gamma^6\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}.$$ So we now have $$a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^4|{\bf a}|^2-\gamma^6\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}.$$
 
Oh I think I see what you're saying. So then, is my answer for [itex]a_\mu a^\mu[/itex] the general expression for the norm? This is what I've been trying to find. If so, it's no wonder professors don't spend much time talking about it---it's hideous! :-)
 
You can still improve it as
[tex]a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^4|{\bf a}|^2-\gamma^6\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}.[/tex]
[tex]a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^6[\gamma^{-2}|{\bf a}|^2-\frac{|{\bf v\cdot a}|^2}{c^2}].[/tex]
[tex]a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^6[(1-\frac{|{\bf v}|^2}{c^2})|{\bf a}|^2-\frac{|{\bf v}|^2|{\bf a}|^2(cos \theta)^2}{c^2}].[/tex]
[tex]a_\mu a^\mu=-\gamma^6 |{\bf a}|^2[1-\frac{|{\bf v}|^2}{c^2}(1+ (cos \theta)^2)].[/tex]

That is, if that is an improvement...
 
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