Shahil
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hey organic
actually my correction was on the suggestion prudenceoptimus made!
actually my correction was on the suggestion prudenceoptimus made!
As long as you can't tell what's wrong with that, maybe you should just accept that you're wrong. Because you are.For any nunber x where:
0 < x < 1
we know that:
0 < \sqrt{x} < 1
and
x < \sqrt{x}
Lets say that there is a largest number between 0 and 1, what is it's square root? If it greater than it's square root, it is greater than 1, if it is equal to it's square root it is equal to 1 and if it's square root is greater than itself then we have generated a number that is larger than the largest number less than 1 so it can't be the largest number less than 1!
This is not the last digit but the limit digit or the unreachable digit of 0.999...
Only the second kind (in this definition) is meaningful in this debate. Again, using this I can prove thatIn mathematics and philosopy we find two concepts of infinity: potential infinity, which is the infinity of a process which never stops, and actual infinity which is supposed to be static and completed, so that it can be thought of as an object.
but I am sure that by now even you must realize that nobody believes that you are correct!
Then you are using it incorrectly. There is no open interval consisting of one number.If you write 8*10^(-n-1) then you don't understand my argument, which is based on the idea
of the open interval http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Interval.html .
Instead of using it between two different numbers, i use it on one number, represented by base 10 (we can use any other base value instead).
Originally posted by Magnus
How can you represent the largest # that is less than 1?
you don't understand my argument
What HallsofIvy was trying to say is that this is an important feature of the decimal representation (or base-n representation) of the real numbers, not an important feature of real numbers themselves.
As stated earlier, the law there is the mathematical definition of infinity. You have it wrong and as a result your proof is wrong.Originally posted by Organic
...and there is no mathematical law that does not allow me to use the open interval idea on this range of digits, existing in these infinite levels of scales.
Therefore [1.0999...8) is a legal notation, which is the result of
[0.99999...9)
+
[0.09999...9)
=
[1.09999...8)
Originally posted by Hurkyl
I can represent real numbers with points on a line.
I can represent (some) real numbers algebraically.
I can represent (some) real numbers with combinations of elementary functions.
(assuming the axiom of choice) There are uncountable index sets I such that each real number can be written uniquely in the form
<br /> \sum_{\iota \in I} c_{\iota} \iota<br />
Where all but a finite number of the c_{\iota}'s are zero, and the nonzero ones are rational numbers.
The point is, the countability of the digits cannot be a fundamental property of real numbers because digits are not a fundamental property of real numbers.
Originally posted by Integral
I rest my case, you have proven my point. In your own words
<br /> \sum_{\iota \in I} c_{\iota} \iota<br />
Even you use the integers to index your representaion. That is all I am saying, it is fundamental that any representation can be indexed with the integers. You do it in your general representation, I do not care what method you use, a real number has at most a countable number of terms in the sum which represents it.
So the fundamental property of the interval's idea can be used on sequence of digits based on base^power method, where the right side of it has no smallest scale (represented by some digit), but the 'digit' + ')' are the notation of the sequence's infimum
Therefore [0.000...1) is a legal mathematical notation.
posted by OrganicThe base^power method is infinitely many information cells upon infinitely many scales, where their periodic changes depends on base^power values.
each information cell includes n ordered digits, which represent some base value quantity, for example:
That is definitely NOT true. I can't imagine any mathematician believing that BOTH "given a line and a point not on that line, there exist exactly one line through the given point parallel to the given line" and "given a line and a point not on that line, there exist more than one line through the given point parallel to the given line" are "self-evidently true"!Math is based on different consistant systems of axioms,which are propositions regarded as self-evidently true without proof.