What is the limit of (kn)! / n^(kn) as n approaches infinity?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of the expression \(\frac{{(kn)!}}{{n^{kn}}}\) as \(n\) approaches infinity, with a focus on different values of the natural number \(k\). Participants explore theoretical implications and mathematical reasoning related to this limit.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant poses the limit question for any natural \(k\), expressing curiosity about its behavior as \(n\) approaches infinity.
  • Another participant provides a response that includes specific cases: for \(k=0\), the limit is 1; for \(k>0\), the limit is expressed in terms of Stirling's approximation, leading to different outcomes based on the value of \(k\): 0 if \(k=1,2\) and \(\infty\) if \(k>e\).
  • A third participant introduces a related limit involving the Gamma function, suggesting a proof and hinting at the use of infinite products.
  • A later reply clarifies that the initial curiosity about the limit was derived from a product representation, reiterating the connection to the factorial expression.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants present differing views on the limit's behavior for various values of \(k\), indicating that multiple competing interpretations exist without a consensus on the overall limit.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions related to the application of Stirling's approximation and the properties of the Gamma function, which may not be universally accepted or fully explored within the thread.

bomba923
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(This isn't homework, just a curiosity derived from another problem)

Well, this is probably quite simple...:shy:

For any natural 'k', what is the

[tex]\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{\left( {kn} \right)!}}<br /> {{n^{kn} }}[/tex]

?
 
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I love it!

For k=0, it's 1. For k>0, we have

[tex]\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{\left( {kn} \right)!}}{{n^{kn} }} = \sqrt{2\pi} \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{\left( {kn} \right)}^{nk+\frac{1}{2}}e^{-nk}}{{n^{kn} }} = \sqrt{2k\pi} \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \sqrt{n}\left( \frac{k}{e}\right) ^{nk} = \left\{\begin{array}{cc}0,&\mbox{ if }<br /> k=1,2\\ \infty, & \mbox{ if } k>e\end{array}\right.[/tex]

since by Stirling's approximation: for [itex]n \gg 1[/itex],

[tex]n! \sim \sqrt{2\pi}n^{n+\frac{1}{2}}e^{-n}[/tex].
 
Assuming you have knowledge of the Gamma function, try this one:

Prove that [itex]\forall n,k\in\mathbb{Z} ^{+}[/itex],

[tex]\mathop {\lim }\limits_{N \to \infty } \frac{\left[ \Gamma \left( 1+ \frac{k}{N}\right) \right] ^{n}}{\Gamma\left( 1+ \frac{nk}{N}\right)} =1[/tex]

Hint: Use infinite products!
 
Thanks; when I mentioned "curiousity derived from another problem"
I was trying to find (from the product)

[tex]\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \prod\limits_{i = 1}^{kn} {\frac{i}<br /> {n}} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{\left( {kn} \right)!}}<br /> {{n^{kn} }}[/tex]
 

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