What is the Power Mean Theorem for Generalised Means?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Power Mean Theorem for Generalised Means, specifically focusing on the limit as α approaches infinity and its implications for the arithmetic and geometric means of a set of numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the validity of the original statement regarding the limit and suggest alternative limits, such as α approaching 0. There is mention of using logarithmic transformations and asymptotic approximations to explore the problem further.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, raising questions about the assumptions made in the original statement. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of logarithmic methods and inequalities, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the correct limit to consider, with participants discussing the implications of different approaches and the potential use of inequalities like Jensen's inequality.

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Homework Statement



Anyone have the proof or exact direction to work on?

\mathop{\lim}\limits_{\alpha \to \infty}(\frac{a_1^{\alpha}+a_2^{\alpha}+...+a_n^{\alpha} }{n})^{1/\alpha}=\sqrt[n]{a_{1}a_{2}...a_{n}}


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I do not know how to start.
 
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There's something wrong with your statement. It isn't true. Take n=2 and a_1=2 and a_2=3. You should be able to convince yourself the limit as alpha->infinity is 3. Not sqrt(2*3).
 
You probably want the limit with \alpha\rightarrow 0, don't you?
 
micromass said:
You probably want the limit with \alpha\rightarrow 0, don't you?

Ah, that's it. I would just take the log and then use asymptotic approximations, like exp(x)~1+x and log(1+x)~x for x very small.
 
Yes! Thanks guys the limit tends toward 0. Dick you are right... which approximatation it gave a very simple and elegant proof. Thanks!
 
I believe you could also you the Jensen inequality for this question.
 
Jesnsen inequality is a more generalised inequality ... more like working from top to bottom right?
 
Yes, sort of.:-)
 

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