What is the Total Variation of a Convergent Sequence of Functions on [0,1]?

  • Thread starter Thread starter bham10246
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Variation
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving properties of the total variation of a convergent sequence of functions defined on the interval [0,1]. Specifically, it establishes that T01(f) ≤ lim infn→∞ T01(fn) and, under the condition that each fn is absolutely continuous with T01(fn) ≤ 1, it concludes that T01(f) = limn→∞ T01(fn). The proof leverages the definition of total variation and Fatou's Lemma to analyze the convergence of the functions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of total variation, specifically T01(f) on [0,1]
  • Knowledge of absolute continuity in the context of real-valued functions
  • Familiarity with Fatou's Lemma and its application to sequences of measurable functions
  • Basic concepts of convergence in function sequences, particularly pointwise convergence
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of total variation for functions on closed intervals
  • Explore the implications of absolute continuity on the convergence of function sequences
  • Investigate the applications of Fatou's Lemma in real analysis
  • Learn about the relationship between bounded variation and convergence of sequences of functions
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in real analysis, students studying convergence of functions, and researchers interested in the properties of total variation in functional sequences.

bham10246
Messages
61
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Let [itex]f_n, f: [0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/itex], and [itex]f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)[/itex] for each [itex]x \in [0,1][/itex].

I need to show the following two things:
a. [itex]T_0^1(f)\leq \lim\inf_{n\rightarrow \infty} T_0^1(f_n)[/itex], and

b. if each [itex]f_n[/itex] is absolutely continuous and [itex]T_0^1(f_n)\leq 1[/itex] for each [itex]n[/itex], then [itex]T_0^1(f) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} T_0^1(f_n)[/itex].



Homework Equations



We denote [itex]T_0^1(f)[/itex] as the total variation of f on [itex][0,1][/itex].




The Attempt at a Solution



a.
If [itex]f_n[/itex] is not of bounded variation, then [itex]T_0^1(f_n)=\infty[/itex] and we're done.

So assume [itex]f_n[/itex] is of bounded variation. Then since [itex]f_n(x) \rightarrow f(x)[/itex] for each x, then for a partition [itex]0=t_0 < t_1 < ... < t_N= 1[/itex],

[itex]|f_n(t_j)-f_n(t_{j-1})| \rightarrow |f(t_j)-f(t_{j-1})|[/itex].

So [itex]\sum_j|f_n(t_j)-f_n(t_{j-1})| \rightarrow \sum_j |f(t_j)-f(t_{j-1})|[/itex].
Take the sup from both sides and so we have [itex]T_0^1(f_n)\rightarrow T_0^1(f)[/itex].

I would like to use Fatou's at some point but I would like some hints on how to change the idea of total variation into a sequence of nonnegative measurable functions...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
fn are bounded. Let L be a lower bound for all n.

If L > 0, then all fn are positive.

If L < 0, then you can define gn = fn - L > 0.

If fn is (abs.) cont. then it is measurable (i.e. Borel).
 
Last edited:
Definition of Total Variation: Let f(t) be complex-valued function defined on the interval [0,1]. Let [itex]P: 0=t_0 < t_1 < ... < t_N = 1[/itex] be a partition of the unit interval. Then
[itex]T_0^1(f) = \sup_{P} \:\sum_{i} |f(t_i)-f(t_i-1)|[/itex]
where we take the supremum over all partitions of the unit interval.

Fatou's Lemma: Let [itex]\{f_n\}_n[/itex] be a sequence of nonnegative measurable functions on [0,1]. Assume [itex]f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)[/itex] for almost all x. Then
[itex]\int f \leq \lim\inf_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int f_n[/itex].
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K