What is the width of a square well if its ground-state energy is 2.50 eV?

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SUMMARY

The width of a square well with a ground-state energy of 2.50 eV can be calculated using the equation E1 = 0.625E(1−IDW). Given the depth of the well U0 = 6E(1−IDW), the correct width L is determined to be approximately 0.307 nm. The initial attempt using the infinite square well equation was incorrect due to the finite depth of the well. This problem highlights the importance of understanding the distinction between finite and infinite square wells in quantum mechanics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles
  • Familiarity with the Schrödinger equation
  • Knowledge of energy quantization in potential wells
  • Proficiency in unit conversions, particularly eV to Joules
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  • Study the differences between finite and infinite square wells in quantum mechanics
  • Learn how to apply the finite-depth well equations to practical problems
  • Explore the implications of energy levels in quantum systems
  • Review unit conversion techniques, especially for energy units
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Students studying quantum mechanics, particularly those tackling problems related to potential wells, as well as educators looking to clarify concepts surrounding finite and infinite square wells.

meaghan
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Homework Statement


An electron is bound in a square well of depthU0=6E1−IDW.

What is the width of the well if its ground-state energy is 2.50 eV ?

Homework Equations


En = h2n2/8mL2

The Attempt at a Solution


I used n = 1
so I get:
25eV*1.6*10-19 = h2/8*9.11*10-31*L2

I got L = .388 nm. It wasn't correct. I ignored the depth part at the beginning since I thought it was irrelevant, but it might not be
 
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meaghan said:
U0=6E1−IDW.
I don't understand what that means.

meaghan said:

Homework Equations


En = h2n2/8mL2
That equation is only valid for an infinite square well.
 
Oh man, this was one of my homework problems (assigned on Monday) too.

You've got [U0=6E(1−IDW)]. "IDW" I'm pretty sure means Infinite-Depth Well. This is a finite-depth well so you cannot use infinite-depth equations, but this provided equation gives you a way to apply IDW equations to the FDW.

In practical terms - what they should have included in the problem - is that we can treat [U0=6E(1−IDW)] as [U0=6E].

This is where I don't know where to go. So I sacrificed my own problem to the "give up" button, took my own answer, divided it by my U0, multiplied it by yours and then put it into the IDW equation. What I got was L = 0.3064 nm. Maybe that will work.

I still have no idea why they thought this was a good problem. I will be writing complaints and talking to my professor.
 
Belay that. I asked my professor and this is the real answer:

U0 is the depth of the finite well; E(1−IDW) is the depth of the infinite well (roll with it). With this equation you find that [E1 = 0.625E(1−IDW)] - how you're supposed to figure this out I'm not sure, but you have to to solve the problem.

E1=0.625E(1−IDW)=2.5eV

E(1−IDW)=(2.5eV)/0.625=h2n2/8mL2

with n=1 and m=9.11*10-31kg, and remembering to convert eV to J

L=0.306596nm (with sigfigs, 0.307)

I used this solution to confirm with my numbers and it worked out. I'm still going to report it as a bad problem, though, because at least in my course we didn't cover this in lecture and the textbook *does* have it but in a very roundabout way that a lot of people probably wouldn't catch.
 

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