MHB What is wrong with my formula?

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The user is attempting to calculate the moments of a cut-off standard distribution using a specific formula involving calculus. They have derived several equations but are facing discrepancies in their results, particularly with the behavior of M(2j, \bar{R}) as j varies. Numerical calculations indicate that M(2j, \bar{R}) behaves unexpectedly based on the value of \bar{R}, with rapid decreases and exponential increases noted. The user is seeking assistance in identifying the mistake in their calculations, which has caused confusion over the expected outcomes. The discussion highlights the complexities involved in moment calculations for truncated distributions.
cpwang
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Hi,

I am new here, so I have also attached my formula using pdf here.

I am trying to calculate the moments of a cut-off standard distribution. The question is pure calculus in nature. Please see the attached file.

I need to calculate:
\begin{equation}
M(j, \bar{R}) \equiv \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\bar{R}}^{+\bar{R}} z^j e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} dz;
\end{equation}
Here is how I proceeds:
\begin{align}
M(2j, \bar{R}) & = (2j-1)M(2j-2, \bar{R}) - \frac{2}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \bar{R}^{\frac{2j - 1}{2}} e^{-\frac{\bar{R}}{2}} \\
& = (2j - 1)! (M(0, \bar{R}) - \frac{2}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{\bar{R}}{2}} \sum_{k=1}^{j} \frac{1}{(2k - 1)!} \bar{R}^{\frac{2k - 1}{2}}); \\
X \equiv & 2 e^{-\frac{\bar{R}}{2}} \sum_{k=1}^{j} \frac{1}{(2k - 1)!} \bar{R}^{\frac{2k - 1}{2}}:
\frac{d X}{d\bar{R}} = e^{-\frac{\bar{R}}{2}} {\bar{R}}^{-\frac{1}{2}} (1 - \frac{1}{(2j - 1)!} \bar{R}^{\frac{2j}{2}}); \\
z \equiv \sqrt{{\bar{R}}}: & X = \int \frac{d X}{d\bar{R}} d\bar{R}
= 2 \int_{0}^{\sqrt{{\bar{R}}}} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}} (1 - \frac{1}{(2j - 1)!} z^{2j}) dz; \\
M(2j, \bar{R}) & = (2j - 1)! (M(0, \bar{R}) - M(0, \sqrt{{\bar{R}}})) + M(2j, \sqrt{{\bar{R}}}); \\
M(2j, \bar{R}) & - (2j - 1)! M(0, \bar{R}) = M(2j, \sqrt{{\bar{R}}}) - (2j - 1)! M(0, \sqrt{{\bar{R}}});
\end{align}
The last formula should no longer depends on $\bar{R}$. Because when $\bar{R}$ approaches $\infty$, $M(2j, \bar{R})$ approaches $(2j-1)!$ while $M(0, \bar{R})$ approaches 1, the conclusion of the above formula is:
\begin{equation}
\label{eqn: uncertainty moment 3}
M(2j, \bar{R}) = (2j - 1)! M(0, \bar{R});
\end{equation}
Unfortunately, this conclusion is empirically wrong. I did numerical calculation up to 200 terms, and found:
  • When $\bar{R}$ is below 1, $M(2j,\bar{R})$ decreases rapidly with j
  • When $\bar{R}$ is below 6, $M(2j,\bar{R})$ increases exponentially with j
  • When $\bar{R}$ is above 7, $M(2j,\bar{R})$ increases faster than exponentially with j

Where have I made an mistake?

This problem has troubled me for a few days, because I know the result is wrong, but could not find why.
 

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I am attaching your work as an image so that those who cannot read pdf files can see your work:

View attachment 1974
 

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