What Two Speed Measurements Do Observers in Relative Motion Always Agree On?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the speed measurements that two observers in relative motion can agree upon, particularly focusing on the speed of light and relative velocities. It also touches on the implications of these measurements in the context of momentum for massless particles like photons, and the validity of the Lorentz transformation in proving these relationships.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that one agreed speed measurement is relative velocity, but is uncertain about the second.
  • Another participant asserts that the speed of light is the other speed that observers will agree on, emphasizing that photons have no rest mass.
  • Some participants argue that the speed of light is the only absolute speed, questioning the implications of time dilation on relative motion.
  • Several replies emphasize that the relative speeds of two observers are the same regardless of time dilation effects, supporting the idea that speed measurements are consistent between observers.
  • One participant raises a question about the proof of the statement that observers see each other traveling with equal and opposite speeds, suggesting the need for a derivation without relying on Lorentz transformation.
  • Another participant introduces the concept of using relativistic addition of velocities to explore the relationship between the speeds of two observers.
  • A later reply discusses a geometric interpretation of relative speed in terms of particle 4-velocities and hyperbolic geometry.
  • Concerns are raised about the validity of the Lorentz transformation and the assumptions underlying it, indicating a need for a more general proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of time dilation and the necessity of Lorentz transformation for proving speed relationships. While some agree on the speed of light as an absolute measurement, others question the foundational assumptions of these conclusions, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the Lorentz transformation and the conditions under which the speed measurements are agreed upon. The discussion also reflects varying interpretations of relativistic effects and their implications for speed measurements.

Lillyotv
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What two speed measurements do two observers in relative motion always agree on?

In my opinion, one will be relative velocity...but can't figure out the other..?
Any ideas?

Also, photons of light have zero mass. How is it possible that they momentum?

Cuz Momentum=mv...so if m is zero then how come they have momentum?...I thought abt this and researched...I think the reason is that photons don't have particle properties...kindly elaborate why exactly?
 
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The other speed that they will agree on -- of course -- is the speed of light.

Photons have no "rest mass". If they did, they would require infinite energy to move at the speed of light. The equation 'momentum=mv' is from classical mechanics which is no longer regarded as exactly correct. Both relativity and quantum mechanics forced some modifications on to it. Look up 'relativistic momentum' for more detail.
 
speed of light is the only absolute I can think of. I can see where you might think relative motion but what if the "motion" were "quick" enough to cause time dilation. Well then distance / time would become a quagmire. So my vote is for the speed of light only! :rolleyes:
 
It has nothing to do with time dilation. Lillyotv is correct. The relative speeds will be the same: The speed of B relative to A is the same as the speed of A relative to B.
 
Doc Al said:
It has nothing to do with time dilation. Lillyotv is correct. The relative speeds will be the same: The speed of B relative to A is the same as the speed of A relative to B.
So, it will be 2 speeds...just relative to each other..now that makes sense...thanks!
 
Doc Al said:
It has nothing to do with time dilation. Lillyotv is correct. The relative speeds will be the same: The speed of B relative to A is the same as the speed of A relative to B.
I read a book where this was assumed without any proof. Is it possible to prove this?
 
Lojzek said:
I read a book where this was assumed without any proof. Is it possible to prove this?
One way is to use the relativistic addition of velocities:
[tex]V_{a/c} = \frac{V_{a/b} + V_{b/c}}{1 + (V_{a/b} V_{b/c})/c^2}[/tex]

In this case:
[tex]V_{a/a} = \frac{V_{a/b} + V_{b/a}}{1 + (V_{a/b} V_{b/a})/c^2}[/tex]

Since:
[tex]V_{a/a} = 0[/tex]

Therefore:
[tex]V_{a/b} = - V_{b/a}[/tex]

Make sense?
 
Lojzek said:
I read a book where this was assumed without any proof. Is it possible to prove this?

If you think geometrically, it may be obvious.
All particle 4-velocities are, in spacetime, unit-vectors whose tips lie on the unit future-hyperboloid (analogous to a sphere in Euclidean space).

Relative-speed is simply [the speed of light times] the hyperbolic-tangent of the unsigned "angle" intercepted by the two 4-velocities being considered. (This "angle" is essentially an arc-length on the unit-hyperboloid.)

This is the geometrical picture underlying Doc Al's post.
 
The problem is that last two answers are based on validity of Lorentz transformation. That book I mentioned included derivation of Lorentz transformation from the assumption that two observers see each other traveling with equal, but opposite speeds: v(A,B)=-v(B,A). The assumption was needed to obtain equation L(v)*L(-v)=Identity.

So we must either prove the statement in question without using Lorentz transformation
or derive Lorentz transformation without this assumption!
 
  • #10
Lojzek said:
The problem is that last two answers are based on validity of Lorentz transformation. That book I mentioned included derivation of Lorentz transformation from the assumption that two observers see each other traveling with equal, but opposite speeds: v(A,B)=-v(B,A). The assumption was needed to obtain equation L(v)*L(-v)=Identity.

So we must either prove the statement in question without using Lorentz transformation
or derive Lorentz transformation without this assumption!

It's actually more general than that.
The analogous argument holds for the Galilean transformations as well.
 

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