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Is it true that [itex]d\int_0^t s dB(s) = tB(t)[/itex]? If not, why not? If not, what's the correct answer?
I've googled extensively for how to find the derivative of an integral, but all sources talk about preceding the integral with [itex]\frac{d}{dx}[/itex], but I'm preceding it with only [itex]d[/itex].
I've googled extensively for how to find the derivative of an integral, but all sources talk about preceding the integral with [itex]\frac{d}{dx}[/itex], but I'm preceding it with only [itex]d[/itex].