- #1

Kyuutoryuu

- 5

- 1

(Change in momentum is the area under a force against time curve.)

(Force is the time derivative of momentum.)

Using separation of varibles, you get Fdt=dp. Integrate both sides, you get that the integral of Force with respect to time is equal to p. This seems to imply that p, momentum, is equal to

**change**in momentum?