What's the Paradox in Combining Sine and Cosine Series for Fourier Expansion?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the paradox of combining sine and cosine series for Fourier expansion. Participants clarify that while both sine and cosine functions are eigenfunctions of a Hermitian operator, they span different spaces: sine functions represent odd functions, while cosine functions represent even functions. Consequently, a complete Fourier expansion requires both sine and cosine terms to accurately represent any function in L2 space. The coefficients for sine and cosine series are defined differently, and thus cannot be equated.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and expansions
  • Knowledge of eigenfunctions and Hermitian operators
  • Familiarity with odd and even functions in mathematical analysis
  • Basic integration techniques in the context of function analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the completeness of function bases in L2 spaces
  • Explore the derivation of Fourier coefficients for both sine and cosine series
  • Investigate the implications of orthogonality in function spaces
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers interested in signal processing, harmonic analysis, and the application of Fourier series in various fields.

ShayanJ
Science Advisor
Insights Author
Messages
2,802
Reaction score
605
We know that because \sin{nx} and \cos{nx} are degenerate eigenfunctions of a hermition operator(the SHO equation),and eachof them form a complete set so we for every f(x) ,we have:

<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx}<br />
and
<br /> f(x)=\Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
But here,because for every m,\sin{mx} and \cos{mx} are orthogonal,we also can have:
<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx} + \Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
And its easy to understand that the a_ns and b_ns are the same.
So it seems we reach to a paradox!
What's wrong?
thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It's clear that for example the sum of sin(nx) is an odd function, so you can't expand a non-odd function with the sin(nx) only. Your statement in the first lime should be incorrect.

Sorry, I can't help solve the paradox.
 
A cosine series is a even function. A sine series is odd function.
If the 2nd function was called g(x) instead, then the third function is (f+g)(x).

And no, its not "easy to understand" what you mean by the coefficients being the same. They are defined differently. Why should they be the same?
 
The point is,\sin{nx} are eigenfunctions of the hermition equation below:
<br /> \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}+n^2 y=0<br />
So they should form a complete set and this means that every function can be expanded as a linear combination of them.The same is true for \cos{nx}

And about the coefficients
We have:
<br /> f(x)=\Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
if we multiply by \sin{mx} and integrate from 0 to 2 \pi we get:
<br /> \int_0^{2\pi} f(x) \sin{mx} dx = \Sigma_1^{\infty} \int_0^{2 \pi} b_n \sin{mx} \sin{nx} dx=b_m \int_0^{2 \pi} \sin^2{mx} dx=\pi b_m
And so:
<br /> b_n=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin{nx} dx<br />
if you do the same for the Fourier series consisted of both sine and cosine terms,you get the same formula and Its the same for cosine.
 
Both sinnx and cosnx are the eigenfunctions of the hermitian equation. Doesn't this mean that sinnx and cosnx complete each other ? You expanded your function by half of a complete set.
 
Shyan said:
So they should form a complete set and this means that every function can be expanded as a linear combination of them. The same is true for \cos{nx}

What I highlighted is plural, not singular they. You need both sine and cosine to span L2. You can't just discard half your answer.

And about the coefficients
We have:
<br /> f(x)=\Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
if we multiply by \sin{mx} and integrate from 0 to 2 \pi we get:
<br /> \int_0^{2\pi} f(x) \sin{mx} dx = \Sigma_1^{\infty} \int_0^{2 \pi} b_n \sin{mx} \sin{nx} dx=b_m \int_0^{2 \pi} \sin^2{mx} dx=\pi b_m
And so:
<br /> b_n=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin{nx} dx<br />
if you do the same for the Fourier series consisted of both sine and cosine terms,you get the same formula and Its the same for cosine.

So? And how is this relevant to your claim that there is a paradox?

Edit: Reading your post again, you haven't explained what your paradox actually is! Are you claiming that a_n = b_n? Because that is simply wrong.
 
Last edited:
The sin(nx) are eigenfunctions of that equation. This doesn't mean they are spanning.
In fact, just sinx is an eigenfunction, but just sinx is not enough. They point is that we need all the eigenfunctions, so we need all the sin(nx) and all the cos(nx).

The whole point of these decompositions is that the eigenfunctions form a basis. If you remove even a single one, then the set is no longer spanning, and you don't have a basis anymore.
 
But for every m , \sin{mx} and \cos{mx} are degenerate eigenfunctions.Doesn't that make a difference?
I mean making each of them spanning alone?
 
Each of them spans its spanning space not the entire space. You seem to be under the impression that any function in L2 can be written using a sine series or using a cosine series. That is not true. As pwsnafu said, cosine series span the space of all even functions in L2 and sine series span the space of all odd functions in L2. To get all functions in L2, you need both sine and cosine.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 33 ·
2
Replies
33
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K