I What's the relation between spinor space and SO(3) vector space?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between spinor space and SO(3) vector space, particularly how they behave under rotations. It highlights that when a physical system is rotated through an angle, a vector rotates through that angle while a spinor rotates through half that angle, which can be experimentally verified using a neutron interferometer. The conversation delves into the isomorphism between the two representations, clarifying that while they share mathematical structures, vectors and spinors are fundamentally different. The distinction is emphasized by the fact that SU(2) serves as the double cover of SO(3), leading to unique behaviors for half-integer spin particles. Overall, the thread seeks to clarify these complex relationships and the implications for understanding rotations in quantum mechanics.
  • #31
joneall said:
when I rotate a spinor by a given angle, the change in the spinor is what you would expect given half that angle?
No. "What you would expect" basically assumes a vector, but you're not rotating a vector, you're rotating a spinor. Rotating a spinor by a given angle changes a particular property of the wave function by half as much as rotating a vector through the same angle.

joneall said:
if I start with a spin-up (along, say, z) electron and rotate the whole system (i.e., the total wave function, a product of spatial, spinor and maybe other parts) thru ##2\pi##, the spinor z-component will now be pointing down?
No. You are still not thinking about what I have repeatedly asked you: what part of the wave function is affected?

In the particular case of a rotation by an angle ##2 \pi##, a spinor wave function picks up a minus sign. You started with the wave function ##\ket{z+}## (z spin up). Rotating by ##2 \pi## thus gives you the wave function ##- \ket{z+}##. What does that wave function represent, physically? Certainly not z spin down.
 
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  • #32
PeterDonis said:
In the particular case of a rotation by an angle ##2 \pi##, a spinor wave function picks up a minus sign. You started with the wave function ##\ket{z+}## (z spin up). Rotating by ##2 \pi## thus gives you the wave function ##- \ket{z+}##. What does that wave function represent, physically? Certainly not z spin down.
Sorry, I just do not get it. It seems to me if wave function ##\ket{z+}## with z-spin up, with which you agree, then the rotation to get wave function ##- \ket{z+}## very definitely represents spin down. It seems to me that ##- \ket{z+}## actually IS ##\ket{z-}##. I mean, we've turned something pointing up thru 180°. That must leave it pointing down. What else can it mean?

I guess this is where you ask me yet again what part of the wave function is affected? As far as I can understand, both the spinor and the spatial part are affected.

On the other hand, it's true that what is physically relevant is the modulus of the wave function squared, where the minus sign does not matter. Such a symmetry should lead to a conservation law (Noether). But spin is not conserved independently of orbital/spatial angular momentum. My confusion is increasing, not decreasing.

Please don't just ask another question or point out my incompetence again. I am tiring of that. Please just explain what is going on. Isn't that what Physics Forums is for, helping those who don't understand something to do so? I do thank you for all the attention to my questions.
 
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  • #33
Simply giving the answers doesn't really help someone understand. It's usually better to step someone through a problem without simply giving the answers
 
  • #34
joneall said:
Sorry, I just do not get it.
What basic QM textbooks have you read? What I am telling you is basic QM.

joneall said:
It seems to me if wave function ##\ket{z+}## with z-spin up, with which you agree, then the rotation to get wave function ##- \ket{z+}## very definitely represents spin down.
It may seem that way to you, but it's wrong. If we have a state ##\ket{\psi}##, then ##c \ket{\psi}##, where ##c## is any complex number, represents the same state. Normally we require states to have unit norm, so we would restrict ##c## to be a complex exponential ##e^{i \alpha}##, where ##\alpha## is a real number--i.e., a phase.

Again, this is basic QM, so if you are not familiar with it, I strongly suggest that you take the time to work through a QM textbook.

So we have the state ##\ket{z+}## that represents z spin up, and we have the state ##\ket{z-}## that represents z spin down. From the above it should be evident that we cannot multiply either one of these states by any complex number and get the other. Whatever operation might exist that transforms one of these states into the other, it can't be as simple as just multiplying by some complex number.

joneall said:
we've turned something pointing up thru 180°.
No, we haven't. We've turned it thru 360 degrees. We rotated by ##2 \pi##, not ##\pi##. Once again you are confusing the rotation angle with the effect on the wave function. They're not the same.

Also see further comments below.

joneall said:
Please just explain what is going on.
I am trying to, but you do not appear to have the necessary background knowledge of basic QM. You need to fix that if a discussion like this is going to be fruitful. For a QM textbook I would recommend Ballentine, although there are many and different people have different preferences, so others might recommend a different one.

That said, I'll expand briefly on what I said above for the case of spinors, i.e., spin-1/2 particles. (More details about what I am going to say can be found in Chapter 7 of Ballentine.) Remember that I said the Hilbert space for the spin degree of freedom of these particles is complex 2-vectors, i.e., column vectors like this:

$$
\begin{bmatrix}
a \\
b
\end{bmatrix}
$$

where ##a## and ##b## are complex numbers, and if we want to restrict to vectors of unit norm, as is common in QM, we require ##|a|^2 + |b|^2 = 1##. Note that in writing down this column vector we have to choose a basis, which for spin degrees of freedom means choosing a rotation axis. We make the common choice of the ##z## axis, and this means that the two basis column vectors represent z spin up and z spin down, i.e., we have

$$
\ket{z+} = \begin{bmatrix}
1 \\
0
\end{bmatrix}
$$

$$
\ket{z-} = \begin{bmatrix}
0 \\
1
\end{bmatrix}
$$

This makes it obvious that you can't multiply one of these by any complex number and get the other.

The matrices that represent rotations of spinors are elements of SU(2) in its 2 x 2 matrix representation. You seem to be reasonably familiar with these, and their normal representation relies on the normal representation of the Pauli matrices, which is in the ##z## axis basis in which I wrote down the above column vectors. So you should be able to verify that rotating either of the above column vectors by ##2 \pi## about any axis just multiplies the vector by ##-1##. You should also be able to verify that rotating either of the above column vectors by ##\pi## about either the ##x## or the ##y## axis turns it into minus the other.

So it is possible to turn ##\ket{z+}## into ##\ket{z-}## (but with a minus sign) by rotating through 180 degrees--but you have to pick a rotation axis that is orthogonal to the ##z## axis to do it. Rotating by 180 degrees about the ##z## axis itself doesn't change ##\ket{z+}## (or ##\ket{z-}##) physically--although it does multiply it by ##i##.
 
  • #35
joneall said:
Sorry, I just do not get it. It seems to me if wave function ##\ket{z+}## with z-spin up, with which you agree, then the rotation to get wave function ##- \ket{z+}## very definitely represents spin down. It seems to me that ##- \ket{z+}## actually IS ##\ket{z-}##. I mean, we've turned something pointing up thru 180°. That must leave it pointing down. What else can it mean?
If the wave function is ##\alpha|z+\rangle+\beta|z-\rangle##, then a measurement along the ##z## axis will be up with probability ##\alpha^2## and down with probability ##\beta^2## - obviously ##\alpha^2+\beta^2=1##. Google for “Born rule” for more information.

The post I’m replying to is all the ##\beta=0## case, with different values of ##\alpha##. Note that both ##\alpha## and ##\beta## are in general complex.
 
  • #36
Mordred said:
Simply giving the answers doesn't really help someone understand. It's usually better to step someone through a problem without simply giving the answers
I agree, but we don't seem to be getting anywhere.
 
  • #37
joneall said:
we don't seem to be getting anywhere.
Have you read posts #34 and #35?
 
  • #38
PeterDonis said:
What basic QM textbooks have you read? What I am telling you is basic QM.
This may bore you. Short answer: I've studied and read QM a lot, including in graduate school in the 60s. You can skip the rest except the last paragraph, which is important.

I once (before 1972) was a particle physicist, post-docs at BNL and College de France. But I haven't worked in physics since and I am trying to catch up in retirement. In addition to whatever books we used in the 60s (I only remember Leighton's "Modern physics"), I have recently read Susskind's Theoretical minimum series (GR yet to be read), QM text books by Griffiths and Townsend, as well as QFT and symmetry books by Robinson, Schwichtenberg, and Lancaster and Blundell, with delvings into others. So it's not what I've read that is the problem.

I think one problem is that books about symmetry talk about Lagrangians and not much about wave functions. I can't recall ever having seen symmetry consideration applied to anything but Lagrangians or equations of motion, like Dirac's, but never to wave functions, which are always expressed as sums of plane waves, with matrix coefficients in the case of spinors. So when I am asked what part of the wave function is being changed, I don't know.
 
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  • #39
PeterDonis said:
Have you read posts #34 and #35?
Reading now. Thanks.
 
  • #40
PeterDonis said:
The matrices that represent rotations of spinors are elements of SU(2) in its 2 x 2 matrix representation. You seem to be reasonably familiar with these, and their normal representation relies on the normal representation of the Pauli matrices, which is in the axis basis in which I wrote down the above column vectors. So you should be able to verify that rotating either of the above column vectors by ##2\pi## about any axis just multiplies the vector by -1. You should also be able to verify that rotating either of the above column vectors by about either the or the axis turns it into minus the other.
Yes! Using $$
R_x(\theta) =
e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_3}{2}} =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) & i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) \\
i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & cos(\frac{\theta}{2})
\end{pmatrix}
$$
multiplies by -1 for ##\theta=2\pi##. This also says that rotation thru any angle has the result equivalent to rotation by half that angle for a spinor. E.g., rotation by an angle ##\pi## just multiplies by ##i##. Multiplication by a complex number is just a change in phase, not in eigenvalue.

And that answers my original question -- or what that question was intended to be. Rotation changes the eigenspinor but does not change its eigenvalue in the rotated state. (Did I get that right? I think so.) Similar result for orbital angular momentum, minus the -1 factor.
 
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  • #41
One more point. I quoted Sean Carroll, "A particle of spin s is invariant under a rotation by ##2\pi/s## radians." Would it not be more precise to say "particle wave function" instead of particle? The observable particle is the modulus square of the wave function and that is invariant under a rotation of ##\pi## or any other angle. Or am I picking nits now?
 
  • #42
joneall said:
Would it not be more precise to say "particle wave function" instead of particle?
Yes, but natural language isn’t a precise instrument.

It would be even precise to say “phase of the state vector describing the quantum system under consideration”, but if Carroll were to be consistently that precise the resulting prose would be unreadable. So everyone using natural language will cut some corners in their phrasing and expect the context and the reader’s background understanding to close the gap.
 
  • #43
joneall said:
Rotation changes the eigenspinor but does not change its eigenvalue in the rotated state.
That's correct; the eigenvalues are fixed by the spin type (spin-1/2, spin-1, etc.).
 
  • #44
joneall said:
rotation by an angle ##\pi## just multiplies by ##i##.
That depends on which axis you rotate about and what vector you are rotating. As I said before, if you take either of the spin-z eigenvectors and rotate it by ##\pi## about any axis perpendicular to the ##z## axis, you get minus the other spin-z eigenvector. Only if you rotate a spin-z eigenvector about the ##z## axis do you just multiply it by a phase.

joneall said:
Multiplication by a complex number is just a change in phase, not in eigenvalue.
Yes, that's correct. But not all rotations are just mutiplication by a complex number. See above.
 
  • #45
PeterDonis said:
That depends on which axis you rotate about and what vector you are rotating. As I said before, if you take either of the spin-z eigenvectors and rotate it by about any axis perpendicular to the axis, you get minus the other spin-z eigenvector. Only if you rotate a spin-z eigenvector about the axis do you just multiply it by a phase.
Rotation by ##\pi## about the x-axis multiplies by ##i##. Isn't that a phase, ##e^{i\pi/2}##?
 
  • #46
joneall said:
Rotation by ##\pi## about the x-axis
Rotation of what vector? A given rotation does not act the same way on all vectors.
 
  • #47
joneall said:
Using $$
R_x(\theta) =
e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_3}{2}} =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) & i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) \\
i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & cos(\frac{\theta}{2})
\end{pmatrix}
$$
In the basis we have been using, ##\sigma_3##, i.e., ##\sigma_z##, is diagonal, so there should not be any off diagonal components in ##\exp(i \theta \sigma_3 / 2)##. Also, ##\sigma_3## in this basis represents an infinitesimal rotation about the ##z## axis, not the ##x## axis.
 
  • #48
Sorry, that should have been ##\sigma_1## not 3.
$$
R_1(\theta) =
e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_1}{2}} = =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) & i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) \\
i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & cos(\frac{\theta}{2})
\end{pmatrix}
$$
 
  • #49
joneall said:
Sorry, that should have been ##\sigma_1## not 3.
Yes. So for rotation by ##\pi## about the ##x## axis, the matrix becomes:

$$
R_1(\pi) = \begin{bmatrix}
0 & i \\
i & 0
\end{bmatrix}
$$

How does this matrix act on the vector that represents spin-z up, i.e., on the following vector?

$$
\begin{bmatrix}
1 \\
0
\end{bmatrix}
$$

The result won't just be that vector multiplied by ##i##.
 
  • #50
See I bumbled several things there. Let's start over. A (z-up) spinor rotated about the x-axis undergoes a transformation
$$
R_1(\theta) =
e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_1}{2}} =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) & i sin(\frac{\theta}{2})
i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & cos(\frac{\theta}{2})
\end{pmatrix}
$$ which for θ=2π is just the negative of the identity. (I've gone thru all these with pencil and paper...) Ditto for
$$R_2(\theta) =e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_2}{2}} =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) & sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) \\
- sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & cos(\frac{\theta}{2})
\end{pmatrix}$$
and
$$R_3(\theta) =
e^{i\theta \frac{\sigma_3}{2}} =
\begin{pmatrix}
cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) + i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}) & 0 \\
0& cos(\frac{\theta}{2}) - i sin(\frac{\theta}{2}))
\end{pmatrix}$$.
So a rotation through an angle of 2π along the x, y or z axes returns the negative of the spinor (10). And this is the difference between a 2-d spinor and a 3-d vector, their different properties under rotation.

OK now?

My original question was intended to be (but apparently was not), what is the connection between a spinor and a vector under rotation? It's what I said in the lst paragraph.

Can one deduce from this that a rotation on a system with a spinor and a vector will require conservation of the total angular momentum, spin plus orbital?
 
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  • #51
Is there a way to preview a post, or do I have to post it and then do an edit?
 
  • #52
joneall said:
Is there a way to preview a post
Click the Preview icon at the upper right corner of the post window.
 
  • #53
joneall said:
a rotation through an angle of 2π along the x, y or z axes returns the negative of the spinor (10).
Yes, this is correct.

joneall said:
And this is the difference between a 2-d spinor and a 3-d vector, their different properties under rotation.
As a general statement, this is correct, yes: the properties of spinors and vectors under rotation are different. But of course that statement by itself is not very informative.

joneall said:
what is the connection between a spinor and a vector under rotation?
And the answer to that question is, there isn't one. That is, you can't start from the properties of a vector under rotation and apply some simple rule to get the properties of a spinor under rotation, or vice versa. You have to go through a separate analysis of each case, as is done, for example, in Chapter 7 of Ballentine that I referred to before.

joneall said:
It's what I said in the lst paragraph.
No, it isn't. It may have been what you meant to say, but it's not what you said.

joneall said:
Can one deduce from this that a rotation on a system with a spinor and a vector will require conservation of the total angular momentum, spin plus orbital?
Not just from the spin properties alone, no. You have to work out the effects of the total angular momentum operator.
 
  • #54
I have not given up on this subject. I have purchased and am now reading Ballentine. I will resist the temptation to continue the dialog until I have finished at least chapter 7. (Chapter 9 looks quite interesting too.)

Thanks to all who have contributed to raising my understanding, which clearly hasn't progressed far enough.
 

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