Where Did I Go Wrong in Deriving Tensor Component Derivatives?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of tensor component derivatives, specifically the expression for the derivative of the inverse of the Dirac operator, denoted as \(\not{p}\). The user attempts to apply the Leibniz rule to the expression \(-\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}\) and arrives at a conclusion involving \(\gamma^\mu\) and \(\not{p}^2\). The key error identified is in the application of the product rule and the treatment of the indices in the tensor calculus, which requires careful attention to the properties of the gamma matrices and the derivatives involved.

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RicardoMP
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Homework Statement
I want to prove that [tex] -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=\frac{1}{\not{p}}\gamma^\mu \frac{1}{\not{p}}[/tex]
Relevant Equations
[tex] \not{p}=\gamma^\mu p_\mu[/tex]
This was my attempt at a solution and was wondering where did I go wrong: -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=-\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\nu p_\nu]^{-1}=\gamma^\nu\frac{\partial p_\nu}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\sigma p_\sigma]^{-2}=\gamma^\nu\delta^\nu_\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}=\gamma^\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}
Any hint would be great! Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Apply the Leibniz rule to \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial p_{\mu}} \frac{1}{\not\! p} \right) \not \! p \ .
 

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