Trave11er
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Does it have any deeper theoretical foundation or is it just true empirically?
The discussion revolves around the origins and theoretical foundations of Hamilton's principle, particularly in relation to its empirical validity and connections to quantum mechanics through Feynman's path integral formulation. Participants explore the implications of extremizing the action functional and the conditions under which this principle holds.
Participants express varying levels of understanding and agreement regarding the implications of Hamilton's principle and its connection to quantum mechanics. The discussion contains unresolved questions and differing interpretations of the mathematical underpinnings.
Participants highlight the complexity of the relationship between classical and quantum mechanics, particularly in the context of action integrals and their extremal properties. There are references to mathematical concepts that may require further clarification.
This discussion may be of interest to those studying classical mechanics, quantum mechanics, and the mathematical foundations of physics, particularly in relation to variational principles.
Trave11er said:Thanks for the reply. Though I can't quite see, why is that only the extremal integral is not canceled out. It seems that there is infinity of possible values with their corresponding action integrals - why should the extremal one survive - can you go into, please?