Why a force perpendicular to the velocity doesn't change the magnitude?

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The discussion centers on the concept that a force applied perpendicular to the velocity of an object does not change its speed. Participants clarify that if the force remains perpendicular, the acceleration does not have a component in the direction of velocity, thus maintaining constant speed. Misunderstandings arise regarding the implications of applying this concept over time, with some arguing that minimal changes should accumulate to affect speed. The conversation also touches on the importance of clear communication and respect in the forum, emphasizing that politeness suffices without the need for formal honorifics. Overall, the thread highlights the fundamental physics principle that perpendicular forces do not alter the magnitude of velocity.
  • #31
I am really very sorry for my English and I accept my mistake, from now onwards I will do my best to explain what I write and also I want to tell that English is not my native language so I can't explain well in English.
 
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  • #32
Hemant said:
I am really very sorry for my English and I accept my mistake, from now onwards I will do my best to explain what I write and also I want to tell that English is not my native language so I can't explain well in English.
You do MUCH better than most of us would do in whatever your native language is :smile:
 
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  • #33
Hemant said:
So can you please tell me how can I give someone respect
That's an easy one. Just make sure your replies to what they say show that you have thought about what they have said - even if it seems to go against your preconceptions.
In these matters it is always a good idea to assume ( and make it clear) that you are wrong if your personal reasoning leads you away from accepted Physics. (Unless you have studied it all and are at the leading edge of research.) "Why am I wrong?" not "I must be right, despite what they are telling me" It usually gets much more helpful responses.
Sirs and Mams are not worth much on PF; you could well find you are talking to someone younger than you who happens to know the answer.
 
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  • #34
@Hemant - @PeroK's post #11 gives you a correct proof, showing that the change of kinetic energy (proportional to speed squared) is zero if the acceleration and velocity are perpendicular. @jbriggs444's posts #17 and #19 explain why your original argument doesn't work, because what you were describing was a parabolic path, not a circular one.
 
  • #35
sophiecentaur said:
That's an easy one. Just make sure you replies to what they say show that you have thought about what they have said
Nicely put. Many of us just want to know that we are being listened to.

Let us go back and examine a response that did not measure up to such a standard.
Hemant said:
Please help me get out of this problem, which is correct explanation of this.
There is no feedback here to indicate that anything has been taken on board. There is no indication of what has been found wanting in any of the previously provided correct answers. There is only a renewed demand for a final answer.

At the risk of reading more into a 14 word request than is actually there...

This is suggestive of a learning environment in which every question has a single "right answer" and in which the student's job is to produce the right answer on demand. In my upbringing, the preferred goal is understanding rather than on the parroting of "right answers". Understanding is a personal process. An explanation that works for one person may fail for someone else. We are trying to feed you an explanation which works for you. We cannot do that without feedback.
 
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  • #36
PeroK said:
Not at all. $$\vec F \cdot \vec v = 0 \ \Rightarrow \frac{dK}{dt} = 0 \ \Rightarrow \frac{dv}{dt} = 0$$

PS Note that in post #11 I showed that: $$\frac{dK}{dt} = \vec F \cdot \vec v$$
According to this derivation of work done which makes sense to me and which is as follow,
vx2-ux2=2axs---(I)
Fx=Max---(II)
And after some little algebra we get,
##\frac{1}{2}\ ##mv2x-##\frac{1}{2} \ m##u2x=Fx.s

It means to me that if their is change in speed of object due to the force then it has done work as their is change in kinetic energy of object and if force doesn't changes the kinetic energy then their is no work done which is case of perpendicular force as it doesn't changes the speed but only direction. I know you have shown that as f and v are perpendicular then their dot product is zero but I can't make physical sense from the dot product and I try to understand it physically.
 
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  • #37
jbriggs444 said:
What must its velocity have been a moment ago?
I have found that velocity a moment ago have greater magnitude from this it is concluded that something is wrong but now I can't figure it out what is wrong(as If I keep doing it and find velocity some moments ago and then again find the velocity of the moment from which I had started then my velocity from which I had started has increased value which is not possible) .
So can you please help me to figure it out
 
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  • #38
Hemant said:
I have found that velocity a moment ago have greater magnitude from this it is concluded that something is wrong but now I can't figure it out what is wrong(as If I keep doing it and find velocity some moments ago and then again find the velocity of the moment from which I had started then my velocity from which I had started has increased value which is not possible) .
So can you please help me to figure it out

You're main problem is continuing to use the SUVAT formulas (which only apply to constant acceleration) instead of a calculus-based approach (which is essential in this case).

The argument so far goes something like this:

Q: Let's assume the acceleration is constant for some finite moment of time, then the speed changes. What am I doing wrong?

A: The acceleration is not constant for any finite period of time. It's changing continuously. You need to use calculus.

Q: I don't like calculus. Let's assume the acceleration is constant for some finite moment of time, then the speed changes. What am I doing wrong?

Repeat ad nauseam.
 
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  • #39
  • #40
Physics is a quantitative science. Let us go back to the first post in this thread. It is not quantitative. It is qualitative. It asks the question: "is velocity increasing" but does not answer the question "how fast".

With luck, the following process will justify the result from differential calculus.

So let us refine the setup a bit. We have an object moving rightward at speed ##V_0##. It is being accelerated upward at an acceleration rate of ##a##. We define a unit time increment ##V_0/a##. Obviously, this is the time that it would take for an acceleration of magnitude a to bring the object to a halt. We can refer to time ##t## expressed in those units.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0?

That's an easy one: ##v(0) = V_0##

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=1?

That is not much harder. In these units, it is clear that ##v_y(t) = V_0t## and that ##v_x(t) = V_0##. The vector sum of the two is ##\sqrt{V_0^2+V_0^2} = \sqrt{2}V_0##. This is approximately 1.4 ##V_0##.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0.1?

Easy. ##v_y(t) = V_0t = 0.1V_0##. ##v_x(t) = V_0##. The vector sum is ##\sqrt{V_0^2+(0.1V_0)^2} = \sqrt{1.01} V_0## This is approximately 1.005 ##V_0##.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0.01?

We can carry out the calculation again. This time it's ##\sqrt{1.0001} V_0##. That's approximately 1.00005 ##V_0##

See the pattern?

What tangential acceleration do each of these results represent?

With T=1, we got a ##0.4V_0## velocity increment in 1 unit of time. In these units that's ##0.4 a##.

With T=0.1 we got a ##0.005 V_0## velocity increment in 0.1 units of time. In these units, that's ##0.05 a##.

With T=0.01 we got a ##0.00005 V_0## velocity increment in 0.01 units of time. In these units, that's ##0.005 a##.

See the pattern?

What's the limit of tangential acceleration as you decrease the step size asymptotically toward zero?

How does one interpret this result?

Each time one does the calculation with a particular step size, no matter how small, there is a bit of error involved with the assumption that the acceleration is constant and upward. In truth, the object is traversing a circular path and the acceleration is constantly changing in direction.

The small tangential acceleration that is calculated with a particular small step size is the difference between the average tangential acceleration that would have been seen on the assumed parabolic path and the actual tangential acceleration that is present on the actual circular path.

As step size decreases toward zero, the discrepancy (error) between the calculation and the reality becomes smaller and smaller. The limit that is approached is what the result would be with no remaining error or discrepancy.

That is to say that the true and correct result is zero tangential acceleration.
 
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  • #41
jbriggs444 said:
Physics is a quantitative science. Let us go back to the first post in this thread. It is not quantitative. It is qualitative. It asks the question: "is velocity increasing" but does not answer the question "how fast".

With luck, the following process will justify the result from differential calculus.

So let us refine the setup a bit. We have an object moving rightward at speed ##V_0##. It is being accelerated upward at an acceleration rate of ##a##. We define a unit time increment ##V_0/a##. Obviously, this is the time that it would take for an acceleration of magnitude a to bring the object to a halt. We can refer to time ##t## expressed in those units.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0?

That's an easy one: ##v(0) = V_0##

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=1?

That is not much harder. In these units, it is clear that ##v_y(t) = V_0t## and that ##v_x(t) = V_0##. The vector sum of the two is ##\sqrt{V_0^2+V_0^2} = \sqrt{2}V_0##. This is approximately 1.4 ##V_0##.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0.1?

Easy. ##v_y(t) = V_0t = 0.1V_0##. ##v_x(t) = V_0##. The vector sum is ##\sqrt{V_0^2+(0.1V_0)^2} = \sqrt{1.01} V_0## This is approximately 1.005 ##V_0##.

What is the tangential speed v(t) at t=0.01?

We can carry out the calculation again. This time it's ##\sqrt{1.0001} V_0##. That's approximately 1.00005 ##V_0##

See the pattern?

What tangential acceleration do each of these results represent?

With T=1, we got a ##0.4V_0## velocity increment in 1 unit of time. In these units that's ##0.4 a##.

With T=0.1 we got a ##0.005 V_0## velocity increment in 0.1 units of time. In these units, that's ##0.05 a##.

With T=0.01 we got a ##0.00005 V_0## velocity increment in 0.01 units of time. In these units, that's ##0.005 a##.

See the pattern?

What's the limit of tangential acceleration as you decrease the step size asymptotically toward zero?

How does one interpret this result?

Each time one does the calculation with a particular step size, no matter how small, there is a bit of error involved with the assumption that the acceleration is constant and upward. In truth, the object is traversing a circular path and the acceleration is constantly changing in direction.

The small tangential acceleration that is calculated with a particular small step size is the difference between the average tangential acceleration that would have been seen on the assumed parabolic path and the actual tangential acceleration that is present on the actual circular path.

As step size decreases toward zero, the discrepancy (error) between the calculation and the reality becomes smaller and smaller. The limit that is approached is what the result would be with no remaining error or discrepancy.

That is to say that the true and correct result is zero tangential acceleration.
Aha! I got it 😁😁😁😁
Thanks a lot
 
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  • #42
Hemant said:
but I can't make physical sense from the dot product and I try to understand it physically
Many people confuse the terms "physically" and "familiar". If we are exposed to something enough times then it becomes familiar and a physical 'feeling' will often follow. It is easy for something to make sense when you don't need to make a significant course change in your picture of the world. If, as a result of hammering out the dot product, you get comfortable with it then you will find that 'physical' feeling in totally different contexts. That's something that can be very satisfying.
 
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  • #43
sophiecentaur said:
Many people confuse the terms "physically" and "familiar". If we are exposed to something enough times then it becomes familiar and a physical 'feeling' will often follow. It is easy for something to make sense when you don't need to make a significant course change in your picture of the world. If, as a result of hammering out the dot product, you get comfortable with it then you will find that 'physical' feeling in totally different contexts. That's something that can be very satisfying.
I am irritated with dot product and cross product too much as whenever I try to understand it I only see rules to use it.i have seen it on YouTube,books, course material e.t.c. I tried many times to understand it but it doesn't makes sense to me, sometimes it seems like I will not be able to make sense of it but that feeling of satisfaction which I get when I understands something derives me to do it.i hope your opinion will help me.

Thanks.
 
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  • #44
Hemant said:
whenever I try to understand it I only see rules to use it
I have a feeling that you found the same problems (well forgotten by now) when you were first learning about speed, density, areas etc. etc. Those are all now a part of your 'mental / physical' model of the world. I seriously suggest that using the dot and cross products in real situations will allow them to slip noiselessly into your unconscious models, along with other processes. Just follow the 'rules' often enough.
When you think about the problems that the ancients had with all the maths associated with mechanical phenomena we all take for granted I think you would acknowledge that nothing comes naturally in Physics.
 
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  • #45
sophiecentaur said:
I have a feeling that you found the same problems (well forgotten by now) when you were first learning about speed, density, areas etc. etc. Those are all now a part of your 'mental / physical' model of the world. I seriously suggest that using the dot and cross products in real situations will allow them to slip noiselessly into your unconscious models, along with other processes. Just follow the 'rules' often enough.
When you think about the problems that the ancients had with all the maths associated with mechanical phenomena we all take for granted I think you would acknowledge that nothing comes naturally in Physics.
I will now do tonnes of problems related to cross and dot product and will definitely the bird sight view and will tell you when I get it.
Thanks.
 
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  • #46
Hemant said:
cross and dot
The massive difference between the scalar and vector results are very significant. It's no wonder that the dot product makes so much sense - for instance the work done, related to magnitudes and angle between.
 
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  • #47
sophiecentaur said:
The massive difference between the scalar and vector results are very significant. It's no wonder that the dot product makes so much sense - for instance the work done, related to magnitudes and angle between.
True,I thought about dot product for a while and then I realized that it is just a name given to a the process of finding the vector along the direction of another vector but in case of cross product the thing which irritates me most is that when I study about it then for making sense of it most websites,article,books e.t.c gives example of torque and then while studying torque they tell that torque direction is perpendicular to the plane because we do it's cross product.
 
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