Why Are Both X- and Y-Intercepts Equal to 1/f in the Lens' Equation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Lens' equation, expressed as 1/f = 1/u + 1/v, highlighting that both the x- and y-intercepts are equal to 1/f. When the object distance (u) approaches infinity, the term 1/u approaches zero, simplifying the equation to 1/v = 1/f, which indicates that the image distance (v) equals f. Conversely, when the image distance (v) approaches infinity, 1/v approaches zero, leading to the same conclusion regarding the object distance (u). This symmetry in the equation confirms that both intercepts are indeed equal to 1/f.

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For the Lens' equation

1/f = 1/u + 1/v

why can both the x- and y-intercepts be considered equal to 1/f?
 
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When u becomes infinite what does 1/u become?What happens when v becomes infinite?
 
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