JustinLevy said:
But the potential energy is not increasing in that example. From the reference frame of the elevator, the furniture is indeed moving upwards, but so is the earth. Assuming the elevator is moving at a constant speed, both the kinetic and gravitational potential energy of the furniture are constant. No? I guess I'm not getting the answer you are hinting at. :(
Sorry, I was a little dumb there. I was trying to show that the same "problem" exists in Newtonian physics (i.e. in Galilean spacetime) as well, but the furniture in my example (which we're supposed to think about in Newtonian terms) aren't accelerating, so the sum of the forces on them are zero, and no work is being done.
To make the point I was trying to make, we have to consider an accelerating coordinate system. So consider the first few seconds of your elevator ride, when the elevator is accelerating (towards the ground). Or if you prefer, imagine that the elevator cable snaps and that you're in free fall. Now we can associate a non-inertial coordinate system with the motion of the elevator. (We're still talking about Newtonian/Galilean physics here). In this coordinate system, the "up" component of the velocity of an arbitrary piece of furniture is increasing, so that object, let's say it's a chair, has a non-zero coordinate acceleration. Force is defined by F=ma, so there's a force acting on the chair. It's often called a "fictitious" force.
This force is clearly doing work, since one of the position coordinates of the chair is changing as well. W=\int F z'(t) dt. And the kinetic energy is increasing as a result, since the velocity is increasing. So even in Newtonian physics, we have situations where we can ask "Where does the energy come from?". That's the point I wanted to make.
I wouldn't answer it with "Bah, that's just a fictitious force." I don't think any distinction should be made between "fictitious" forces and "real" forces. They are the same thing. We start by specifying which curves represent non-accelerating motion. Then we define acceleration as a measure of the deviation from non-accelerating motion. Then we define force as the mass times the function that describes how the acceleration depends on the velocity, the position, and the time: x''(t)=f(x'(t),x(t),t)=F(x'(t),x(t),t)/m.
So what
is the answer? I'll leave that as an exercise.
(That means I have to think about it

).