Why Does Calculating Torque Away from the Center of Mass Cause Confusion?

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Tell me where I've gone wrong (here r(1,2) means position of point 1 with respect to point 2 etc):

ω x r(1,2)=v(1,2)
Differentiating both sides with respect to time:
ω x v(1,2) + [itex]\alpha[/itex] x r(1,2) = a(1,2)
=>ω x (ω x r(1,2)) + [itex]\alpha[/itex] x r(1,2) = a(1,2)

Now let us imagine a uniform rod in free space of length l and mass m, lying with the origin at its centre. A force F(+[itex]\hat{j}[/itex]) is applied at one end (+l/2[itex]\hat{i}[/itex]). We observe the motion about centre of mass first at time 0:
Icm=ml2/12
[itex]\tau[/itex]=+l/2[itex]\hat{i}[/itex] x F[itex]\hat{j}[/itex]=F*l/2[itex]\hat{k}[/itex].
[itex]\alpha[/itex]=6F/(m*l) [itex]\hat{k}[/itex]
Now since ω=0,
a(cm, positive end)=6F/(m*l) [itex]\hat{k}[/itex] x l/2[itex]\hat{i}[/itex]= 3F/m [itex]\hat{j}[/itex]

Now we observe the motion about the positive end:
[itex]\tau[/itex]=0 (since the force is applied at that very point)
=> [itex]\alpha[/itex]=0
ω=0
Hence a(positive end, cm)=0
=>a(cm, positive end)=0

What have I done wrong? :(
Edit: By positive end I mean the end which is on the positive side of the x axis.
 
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transparent said:
Now we observe the motion about the positive end:
[itex]\tau[/itex]=0 (since the force is applied at that very point)
=> [itex]\alpha[/itex]=0
ω=0
Hence a(positive end, cm)=0
=>a(cm, positive end)=0

What have I done wrong? :(
Things aren't so simple when you take torques with respect to an accelerating point other than the center of mass. You cannot set net torque equal to Iα in such a case.
 
Doc Al said:
Things aren't so simple when you take torques with respect to an accelerating point other than the center of mass. You cannot set net torque equal to Iα in such a case.

Why? And isn't the centre of mass accelerated?

Edit: Didn't read "other than the centre of mass" part. But still, why is it so?