I've seen in multiple sources that a linear transformation constitutes a tensor with one contravariant and one covariant index. Could someone explain to me why this is the case? I'm asking not because I have a solid understanding of tensors and am confused about this particular example; rather, I have a very solid understanding of linear transformations and am trying to use this knowledge to understand the co- and contravariance of indices. I understand the co- and contravariance of vectors, but something about applying this concept to indices has created a gap in my understanding.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Why is a Linear Transformation a Type-(1,1) Tensor?

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