- #1
pardesi
- 337
- 0
i don't get this what he wrote...
the internal force \vec{F_{ij}} between two particles is \vec{F_{ij}}=\nabla_{i} V_{ij}=\nabla_{ij} V_{ij}=-\nabla_{j} V_{ij}
where the subscript below \nabla_{k}implies the differentitaion with respect to components of \vec{r_{k}}
i can't get how \vec{F_{ij}}=\nabla_{i} V_{ij} or \vec{F_{ij}}=-\nabla_{j} V_{ij}
the potential energy is dependent on the relative distances between the particles hence there is no meaning to the above two equalities
the internal force \vec{F_{ij}} between two particles is \vec{F_{ij}}=\nabla_{i} V_{ij}=\nabla_{ij} V_{ij}=-\nabla_{j} V_{ij}
where the subscript below \nabla_{k}implies the differentitaion with respect to components of \vec{r_{k}}
i can't get how \vec{F_{ij}}=\nabla_{i} V_{ij} or \vec{F_{ij}}=-\nabla_{j} V_{ij}
the potential energy is dependent on the relative distances between the particles hence there is no meaning to the above two equalities