Why Is There No Generalized Function for div (r̂ / r²)?

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the divergence of the vector field \(\hat{r} / r^2\) and its relationship to generalized functions or distributions, particularly in the context of dimensional analysis and the behavior of functions at the origin. Participants explore the mathematical implications of applying the divergence operator to these expressions, questioning the existence of a generalized function for \(\nabla \cdot (\hat{r} / r^3)\) and comparing it to known results in lower dimensions.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that \(\nabla \cdot (\hat{r} / r^2) = 4\pi \delta^3(r)\) is established, while questioning why \(\nabla \cdot (\hat{r} / r^3)\) does not yield a similar generalized function.
  • Others propose that \(\hat{r} / r^2\) is well-behaved and represents a tempered distribution, allowing the divergence operator to be applied, while \(\hat{r} / r^3\) is ill-behaved at the origin and does not qualify as a tempered distribution.
  • One participant suggests that the divergence of a function that is not tempered could still potentially yield a tempered distribution, raising questions about the conditions under which this might hold.
  • Another participant discusses the possibility of defining a divergence operator that could apply to \(\hat{r} / r^3\) under specific conditions, such as using test functions that are zero at the origin.
  • There is a mention of constructing a sequence of functions that converge to \(\hat{r} / r^3\) and analyzing their divergences to explore the behavior at the origin.
  • Participants also discuss the one-dimensional case of the principal value distribution and its derivative, drawing parallels to the higher-dimensional context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the applicability of the divergence operator to \(\hat{r} / r^3\), with no consensus reached on whether it can be treated as a distribution. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the existence of a generalized function for \(\nabla \cdot (\hat{r} / r^3)\).

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the behavior of functions at the origin significantly influences their classification as distributions. The discussion highlights the importance of dimensionality and the specific definitions of divergence operators in determining whether certain expressions can be treated as distributions.

smallphi
Messages
436
Reaction score
2
We know that

div \; (\hat{r} / r ) = 4 \pi \delta (r)

Why is there no generalized function (distribution) for

div \; (\hat{r} / r^2) = ??
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Isn't it

<br /> \nabla\cdot \frac{x}{|x|^3} = \nabla\cdot\frac{\hat{x}}{|x|^2} = 4\pi\delta^3(x)<br />

I checked something quickly on my notes, if the mistake was yours and not mine, then you probably just ask what is

<br /> \nabla\cdot\frac{x}{|x|^4}<br />

next? I don't know about that yet...

EDIT: Oh, I didn't stop to think about what dimension you are in. I guess you were in three, because of the 4\pi constant. Was I correct?
 
You are right about the correction, I work in 3D. The first relation simply expresses the divergence of the electric field of a point charge which gives the charge density (from one of the Maxwell's equations). The question should have been:

We know that

div \; (\hat{r} / |r|^2 ) = 4 \pi \delta^3 (r)

Why is there no generalized function (distribution) for

div \; (\hat{r} / |r|^3) = ??
 
Last edited:
Because that expression cannot be rigorously reformulated in terms of distributions.
 
Which is the corresponding distribution in 1 dimension? Is it something like

<br /> \frac{d}{dx} \left ( \frac{1}{x} \right ) = 2 \delta (x)<br />
 
Last edited:
\hat{r} / r^2 is well-behaved everywhere, and so it represents a tempered distribution. Thus, the distributional divergence operator can be applied to it.

\hat{r} / r^3, on the other hand, is ill-behaved at the origin, and thus does not represent a tempered distribution. Thus, the distributional divergence operator cannot be applied to it.


In particular, if we try to convolve \hat{r} / r^2 with a Schwartz function (i.e. test function), we get

\iiint f(\vec{r}) \frac{\hat{r}}{r^2} dV<br /> = \int \int \int f(\vec{r}) \hat{r} \sin \varphi \, d\rho d\varphi d\theta

which is clearly convergent. On the other hand,

\iiint f(\vec{r}) \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3} dV<br /> = \int \int \int f(\vec{r}) \frac{\hat{r}}{\rho} \sin \varphi \, d\rho d\varphi d\theta

which is usually a divergent integral, due to the bad behavior at the origin.
 
smallphi said:
Which is the corresponding distribution in 1 dimension? Is it something like

<br /> \frac{d}{dx} \left ( \frac{1}{x} \right ) = 2 \delta (x)<br />

Not quite:

\frac{d}{dx} \left( \frac{x}{|x|} \right) = 2 \delta(x)

x/|x|, of course, is simply the sign function. And, of course, d/dx here means the distributional derivative.
 
Well (something) and div(something) can have very different behaviors at origin r =0 so one has to consider div(something) directly to decide if that could be a distribution or not.

I see the point that

\frac{\hat{r}}{r^3}

is not tempered even before application of the div operator which will make it even 'less tempered' after div.
 
Last edited:
smallphi said:
Does the 'distributional divergence operator' applied on tempered distribution, guarantee you will get tempered distribution as a result?
Yep. This works because the derivative of a test function is also a test function. (so, this property is true of any kind of distribution)

The distributional divergence is defined by, for a vector distribution f and test function g

<br /> \iiint (\nabla \cdot \vec{f}) g \, dV := -\iiint \vec{f} \cdot (\nabla g) \, dV<br />

This integral always exists (because \vec{f} is a distribution and \nabla g is a test function), so \nabla \cdot \vec{f} is a scalar distribution.
 
  • #10
Is it possible that (something) is not tempered but div(something) is tempered distribution?
 
  • #11
smallphi said:
Well (something) and div(something) can have very different behaviors at origin r =0 so one has to consider div(something) directly to decide if that could be a distribution or not.
Fair enough. \hat{r} / r^3 is not a function on all of R^3, so is not in the domain of the divergence operator you learned in calculus. It's not a tempered distribution, so you cannot apply the divergence operator for tempered distributions.

If you choose another definition of the divergence operator, then whether its domain includes \hat{r} / r^3 is yet another question.



For example, if you define distributions on a space of test functions have the property that they are all zero at the origin, then \hat{r} / r^3 ought to be a distribution and have a divergence. But such a choice of test functions means you are effectively working only on \mathbb{R}^3 - \{\, (0, 0, 0)\, \}.



Ostensibly, if you could define a divergence for \hat{r} / r^3, you would want the product rule to hold, so:

\nabla \cdot \left( \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3} \right) =<br /> \nabla \left(\frac{1}{r}\right) \cdot \frac{\hat{r}}{r^2} + \frac{1}{r} \nabla \cdot \left( \frac{\hat{r}}{r^2} \right)<br /> = <br /> -\frac{1}{r^4} + \frac{4\pi}{r} \delta^3(\vec{r})

I suppose you could cross your fingers and try to use this expression in a formal manner. Such optimism works now and then!
 
Last edited:
  • #12
I can think of a series of functions well behaving at the origin and having r_hat/r^3 as limit. I can apply the normal calculus divergence to them and see if the new series converges in the distributional sense (i.e. taking integrals with test functions) to a certain distribution.

That's why I think, just because r_hat/r^3 blows up worse than r_hat/r^2 at origin, doesn't mean its divergence can't be a distribution.
 
Last edited:
  • #13
(p.s. I added more to my previous post)
 
  • #14
I think I understand why it doesn't work for r_hat/r^3 - Hurkyl you are right. I formed a sequence of functions

<br /> \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3 + \epsilon}<br />

that converge to r_hat/r^3 when epsilon goes to zero. Then I formed a seguence of their divergences, which are good behaved at the origin, and applied that sequence to a test function f(r). Integrating by parts and dropping the boundary term:

<br /> \iiint \nabla \cdot \left( \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3+\epsilon}\right)f(r) \, d^3 r = -\iiint \frac{\hat{r}}{r^3+\epsilon} \cdot \nabla f(r) \, d^3 r<br />

There is no way the right hand side go to finite number when epsilon goes to zero for every test function because the differential volume can't cancel the power of r^3 around the origin.
 
Last edited:
  • #15
Now let's change dimensions.

In one dimension, I know that there is a distribution called principal value P(1/x). What is

<br /> \frac{d}{dx} \, P \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) = \, ??<br />

What would be the two dimensional analogue of

div \; (\hat{r} / |r|^2 ) = 4 \pi \delta^3 (r)
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K